Tài liệu Tuyển tập 30 đề thi thử thpt môn tiếng anh 2016 có đáp án

ĐỀ THI MẪU TỐT NGHIỆP THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016 ĐƠN VỊ: THPT NGUYỄN TRÃI Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 01. 02. A. opened A. cook B. played B. fool C. proved C. moon D. regarded D. tool Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in the following question. 03. 04. 05. A. reduction A. discover A. acceptance B. popular B. difficult B. explorer C. financial C. invention C. possibly D. romantic D. important D. refusal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions 06. . …………………should children be allowed to drive. A. Under no circumstances B. Rather C. No sooner D. Than 07. - “More coffee?, Anybody?” - “ _________________.” A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. Yes, I’d love to C. Yes, please D. It’s right, I think 08. Do you know the woman____ over there? A. who sit B. sat C. sits D. sitting 09. Since he was a boy, one of his _____ has been stamp collecting A. cares B. Professions C. sports D. hobbies 10. He is ………………………… A. a nice handsome young man. B. a man nice handsome young C. a young handsome nice man D. a handsome nice young man 11. Their house is much____ than ours. A. more big B. bigger C. big D. more bigger 12. It was raining, ____ we cancelled the trip to the beach. A. although B. so C. out D. because 13. She has a deep-rooted ______ in her own ability. A. bill B. behaviour C. beach D. belief 14. I wasn't properly dressed for the party and felt ___ about my appearance. A. embarrassment B. embarrass C. embarrassing D. embarrassed 15. Hoi An is famous____ its old streets A. for B. to C. about D. of 16. Advanced students need to be aware of the important of collocation A. of high level B. of low level C. of steady progress D. of great important 17. I don't know _________ she will be admitted to the university. A. whether B. who C. what D. which 18. - “Can I use your motorbike this evening?” - “ _______________” A. Of course, you can B. It’s my pleasure C. Of course, you might D. Do it if you can 19. I'd rather have wine ____ beer. A. instead of B. instead from C. instead than D. instead to 20. She's always…………….. promises, but then she always breaks them! A. taking B. making C. having D. doing 21. My brother stopped____ two years ago. A. to smoke B. smoke C. smoked D. smoking 22. Erica must ___ gone out. I can't see her. A. have B. had C. has D. having 23. I am……………. a party at the weekend. Would you like to come? A. making B. doing C. having D. taking 24. A very nice painting is hung ____ the wall in our classroom A. at B. above C. on D. over 25. When Newton was 22 years old, he began____ the theory of gravitation A. study B. studies C. studied D. to study Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 26. My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play. A. modest B. famous C. perfect D. skillful 27. After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader. A. requesting B. offering C. trying D. deciding 28. The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied. A. free B. comfortable C. busy D. relaxed 29. In rural Midwestern towns of the USA, the decisions that affect most residents are made at general assemblies in schools and churches. A. concerts B. public libraries C. prayer services D. gatherings Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 30. When I got home, Irene was lying in bed thinking about the wonderful time she has had. A B C D 31. A catalog of courses and requirements often confuse students. A B C D 32. Here is the book and the workbook that you will need for this course. A B C D 33. Each of the students are studying for the test. A B C D 34. Not only the students but also the teacher are confused by the material. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Teaching English as a foreign language can be a great way to travel the world and earn money at the same time. However, some graduates actually like the idea of (35) …………… a career in teaching English long-term, and there are numerous courses at various (36) …………… of teaching, from the basic certificates to the diploma or even the master’s. To find the right course a good place to start is TEFL.com – an Internet site with lots of relevant information and helpful (37) ……………, including a comprehensive list of institutions in the UK offering TEFL courses. The site also offers a job search facility to assist qualified students (38) …………… finding work. When deciding on a course, the best thing to do is to look at what your needs are. If you want a career in teaching English, the definitely find one designed for that (39) ……………, such as an MA or diploma; but if you want to travel around the world, then do a shorter course that will supply you with teaching skills. Some countries will (40) …………… people without a teaching qualification as (41) …………… as the teacher is a (42) …………… speaker of English. However, most countries now (43) …………… a qualification. It is advisable to make sure that the course that you want to do is recognized and that it includes a period of teaching practice. This is important in (44) ………… people to be English language teachers. 35: A. tracking B. chasing C. hunting D. following 36: A. levels B. categories C. groups D. classes 37: A. opinion B. suggestion C. advice D. idea 38: A. to B. for C. at D. in 39: A. function B. use C. aim D. purpose 40: A. occupy B. work C. employ D. staff 41: A. soon B. far C. well D. long 42: A. native B. resident C. local D. national 43: A. insist B. wait C. ask D. expect 44: A. planning B. preparing C. practicing D. organizing Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question s from 45 to 54. Ancient people made clay pottery because they needed it for their survival. They used the pots they made for cooking, storing food, and carrying things from place to place. Pottery was so important to early cultures that scientists now study it to learn more about ancient civilizations. The more advanced the pottery in terms of decoration, materials, glazes and manufacture, the more advanced the culture itself. The artisan who makes pottery in North America today utilizes his or her skill and imagination to create items that are beautiful as well as functional, transforming something ordinary into something special and unique. The potter uses one of the Earth's most basic materials, clay. Clay can be found almost everywhere. Good pottery clay must be free from all small stones and other hard materials that would make the potting process difficult. Most North American artisan-potters now purchase commercially processed clay, but some find the clay they need right in the earth, close to where they work. The most important tools potters use are their own hand; however, they also use wire loop tools, wooden modeling tools, plain wire, and sponges. Plain wire is used to cut away the finished pot from its base on the potter's wheel. After a finished pot is dried of all its moisture in the open air, it is placed in a kiln and fired. The first firing hardens the pottery, and it is then ready to be glazed and fired again. For areas where they do not want any glaze, such as the bottom of the pot, artisans paint on melted wax that will later burn off in the kiln. They then pour on the liquid glaze and let it run over the clay surface, making any kind of decorative pattern that they want. 45. It can be inferred from the passage that clay is processed commercially in order to ………. A. make it easier to color B. remove hard substances C. prevent the glaze from sticking D. make it dry more evenly 46. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Different kinds of clay. B. Crafts of ancient civilizations. C. The making of pottery. D. The training of an artisan. 47. According to the passage, which of the following can be learned about an ancient civilization by examining its pottery? A. Its population B. Its developmental stage C. Its geographic location D. Its food preferences 48. According to the passage, how do most North American potters today get the clay they need? A. They buy it B. They barter for it C. They did it from the earth D. They make it 49. The word "basic" in line 7 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. Dirty B. Fundamental C. Familiar D. Versatile 50. The word "pattern" in line 15 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. Color B. Model C. Puzzle D. Design 51. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a way that ancient people used pottery? A. To transport objects B. To wash clothes C. To hold food D. To cook 52. According to the author, what do potters use to remove the pot from the wheel? A. A sponge B. Melted wax C. A wire loop D. Plain wire 53. The word "functional" in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. Useful B. Inexpensive C. Strong D. Original 54. The word "it" in line 2 refers to _____. A. clay B. survival C. culture D. pottery Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question s from 55 to 64. The Moon has been worshipped by primitive peoples and has inspired humans to create everything from lunar calendars to love sonnets, but what do we really know about it? The most accepted theory about the origin of the Moon is that it was formed of the debris from a massive collision with the young Earth about 4.6 billion years ago. A huge body, perhaps the size of Mars, struck the Earth, throwing out an immense amount of debris that coalesced and cooled in orbit around the Earth. The development of Earth is inextricably linked to the moon; the Moon's gravitational influence upon the Earth is the primary cause of ocean tides. In fact, the Moon has more than twice the effect upon the tides than the Sun does. The Moon makes one rotation and completes a revolution around the Earth every 27 days, 7 hours, and 43 minutes. This synchronous rotation is caused by an uneven distribution of mass in the Moon (essentially, it is heavier on one side than the other) and has allowed the Earth's gravity to keep one side of the Moon permanently facing Earth. It is an average distance from Earth of 384,403 km. The Moon has no atmosphere; without an atmosphere, the Moon has nothing to protect it from meteorite impacts, and thus the surface of the Moon is covered with impact craters, both large and small. The Moon also has no active tectonic or volcanic activity, so the erosive effects of atmospheric weathering, tectonic shifts, and volcanic upheavals that tend to erase and reform the Earth's surface features are not at work on the Moon. In fact, even tiny surface features such as the footprint left by an astronaut in the lunar soil are likely to last for millions of years, unless obliterated by a chance meteorite strike. The surface gravity of the Moon is about one-sixth that of the Earth's. Therefore, a man weighing 82 kilograms on Earth would only weigh 14 kilograms on the Moon. The geographical features of the Earth most like that of the Moon are, in fact, places such as the Hawaiian volcanic craters and the huge meteor crater in Arizona. The climate of the Moon is very unlike either Hawaii or Arizona, however; in fact the temperature on the Moon ranges between 123 degrees C. to -233 degrees C. 55. The word "uneven" is closest in meaning to _____. A. equally distributed B. orderly C. heavier D. not uniform 56. A person on the Moon would weigh less than on the Earth because _____. A. the Moon has no active tectonic or volcanic activity B. the surface gravity of the Moon is less C. of the composition of lunar soil D. the Moon has no atmosphere 57. According to the passage, the Moon is _____. A. protected by a dense atmosphere B. composed of a few active volcanoes C. older than the Earth D. the primary cause of Earth's ocean tides 58. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. The Moon is not able to support human life. B. People living in Hawaii and Arizona would feel at home on the Moon. C. If the Moon had no gravitational influence, the Earth would not have tides. D. Mars could have been formed in a similar way to the Moon. 59. The word "erase" is closest in meaning to _____. A. change B. impact C. obliterate D. erupt 60. All of the following are true about the Moon EXCEPT _____. A. it has a wide range of temperatures B. it is unable to protect itself from meteorite attacks C. it has less effect upon the tides than the Sun D. it is heavier on one side than the other 61. The word "massive" is closest in meaning to _____. A. impressive B. dense C. huge D. unavoidable 62. The word "debris" is closest in meaning to _____. A. rubbish B. earth C. satellites D. moons 63. Why does the author mention "impact craters"? A. to show the result of the Moon not having an atmosphere. B. to explain the corrosive effects of atmospheric weathering. C. to explain why the Moon has no plant life because of meteorites. D. to show the result of the Moon not having active tectonic or volcanic activity. 64. What is the passage primarily about? A. the Moon's effect upon the Earth. B. a comparison of the Moon and the Earth. C. the origin of the Moon. D. what we know about the Moon and its differences to Earth. WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in s uch a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. 65: He is the most generous headmaster I’ve ever worked with. → I have never____________________________________________________________ 66: No students in my class can speak English as fluently as Lam does. → Lam____________________________________________________________________ 67: Since our advertisement for our product was so bad, fewer people bought it. → Had____________________________________________________________________ 68: The workers only called off the strike after a new pay offer. → Only after ______________________________________________________________. 69: “You’re always making terrible mistakes,” said the teacher. The teacher complained______________________________________________________ Part II In about 140 to 150 words, Write a paraghaph to tell about “What are the most important qualities for a friendship?” You should write at least 80 words. …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………..... KEY: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. D A B B C A C D D 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. D 26. D 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. D 31. D 32. A 33. B 34. B READING 1: 35. D 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. D 40. C 41. D 42. A 43. D 44. B READING 2: 45. B 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. B 50. D 51. B 52. D 53. A 54. D READING 3: 55. D 56. B 57. D 58. A 59. C 60. C 61. C 62. A 63. A 64. D WRITING (2đ) Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in s uch a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (0,1 X 5 = 0,5đ) 65: I have never worked with such a more generous headmaster than he is. 66: Lam can speak English the most fluently of all students in my class. 67: Had the advertisement for our product been better, more people would have bought it. 68: Only after a new pay offer did the workers call of the strike. 69: The teacher complained about his/her students making terrible mistakes. Part II. In about 140 to 150 words, Write a paraghaph to tell about “What are the most important qualities for a friendship?”You should write at least 80 words. (1.5đ) 1. Nội dung: - Đúng chủ đề: 0.25đ - Viết logic , hợp lý: 0,25đ 2. Ngôn ngữ: - Viết đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp: 0,25đ - Sử dụng từ vựng phù hợp và phong phú: 0,25đ 3. trình bày: - Viết đủ số từ: 0.25đ - Mạch lạc, rõ rang, có ý sang tạo: 0.25đ 4. Điểm trừ: - Ngữ pháp: trừ tối đa 0.125đ - Chính tả: trừ tối đa 0.125đ - Ít hơn số từ qui định: trừ 0.125đ A friend is very important to everyone. In fact, it’s impossible to live without friends. In my opinion, there are three basic qualities that lay the firm foundation for friendship. Firstly, mutual help. A good friend is always ready to give us a hand in any situations. A friend in need is a friend indeed. We shouldn’t be too deliberate in helping. Secondly, mutual confidence. Friends must feel safe when telling each other the most secrets. Obviously, liars and talkative people can never have good friends. Thirdly, talking about true friendship, I can’t help mentioning the faithfulness and sharing. A true friend is the one who will cheer to our happiness and share our sorrows in adversity. In short, the value of friendship is that gives us a source of happiness and comforts our sufferings and a true friendship will be forever although we are rich or poor. ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016 ĐƠN VỊ: THPT CHÂU THÀNH 1 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: Hardly had the car turned round the corner when one of the back wheels ______. A. broke away B. turned out C. came off D. rolled down Question 2: Did you apologise to Beth, ______? A. who you spilt some coffee on her dress B. you spilt some coffee on her dress C. whose dress you spilt some coffee D. whose dress you spilt some coffee on Question 3: ______ often serve as places of public entertainment and festivals, they can also be places where people can find peace. A. Even though city parks B. City parks which C. There are city parks which D. City parks are Question 4: “Today’s my 18th birthday” – “______.” A.Take care B. Have a good time C. Many happy returns D. Oh, the older, the sadder Question 5: The man ______ his invaluable time to redecorating the walls before the coming festival. A. spent B. devoted C. used D. confessed Question 6: Scientists and engineers have invented devices to remove ______ from industrial wastes. A. pollutions B. pollute C. polluting D. pollutants Question 7: Brian is going to see the principal because this is ______. A. a such serious matter B. such serious matter C. so serious a matter D. so serious matter Question 8: Throughout history, the moon has inspired not only song and dance ______. A. and also poetry and prose B. but poetry also prose C. together with poetry and prose D. but poetry and prose as well Question 9: It was very difficult for his Literature teacher to ______ what he has written. A. make off B. make of C. make up D. make out Question 10: ______ I dislike Hollywood films but this was an exception. A. As a result B. As far as I know C. As a rule D. As soon as Question 11: I was just looking in the shop window when this necklace ______ my eye. A. drew B. appealed C. caught D. attracted Question 12: In most ______ developed countries, up to 50% of ______ population enters higher education at some time in their lives. A. the/  B. /  C. the/ a D.  /the Question 13: My teacher was angry with me. I didn’t do all the work I ______ last week. A. need to have done B. may have done C. should have done D. must have done Question 14: In the primary school, a child is in the ______ simple setting. A. comparison B. comparative C. comparatively D. comparable Question 15: Hardly can we imagine how people rushed to see the first films ______ in the 1930s. A. to be shown B. to show C. be shown D. showing Question 16: The boss left instructions, under no circumstances ______ unattended. A. should leave the office B. we are to leave the office C. is the office to be left D. should the office leave Question 17: “Oh no, I’m late for my appointment.” – “______.” A. Catch you later B. Catch you now C. Please to meet you D. Nice to see you Question 18: His application was ______ because he is inexperienced and under-qualified. A. turned on B. turned out C. turned in D. turned down Question 19: When Peter was a child, there ______ a market near his house. A. used to be B. used to have C. used to be being D. used to have been Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. advisable B. admirable C. admissible D. desirable Question 21: A. automatic B. industrial C. occasional D. exaggerate Question 22: A. continuous B. extinctive C. particular D. primitive Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 23: A. degree B. critical C. fertile D. minimun Question 24: university B. understand C. discussion D. industrial Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 25: Despite the terrible traffic, foreign visitors keep coming to the tourist attraction in A B C large amounts. D Question 26: Silver is too soft to use by itself, so it is mixed with another metal to make A B C themselves harder. D Question 27: The brain is made up of billions of neurons that differ with each other A B C in size and shape D Question 28: The bridge was hitting by a large ship during a sudden storm last week. A B C D Questions 29: Mary and her sister just bought two new winters coats at the clearance sale A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 30: Changing the departure time would have entailed getting up two hours earlier. A. resulted from B. led to C. came out D. brought in Question 31: The current economic crisis should be regarded as a warning not to be overconfident in the market. A. depression B. inflation C. redundancy D. shortage Question 32: He was sacked on the spot because he showed his shortage of the basic knowledge. A. enrolled B. recalled C. dismissed D. relieved Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 33: He is interested in voluntary activities designed by Youth Union Organization. A. obligatory B. desired C. ambitious D. willing Question 34: Candidates can leave out insignificant information to avoid being confused when reading the instructions. A. reasonable B. believable C. intentional D. major Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 44. Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects – an estimated 90 percent of the world’s species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity. Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. For example, in 1875, one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour’s walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed. A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate and tropical regions is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly “personal communication” citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase. In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized. Question 35. The word “consequence” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to . A. result B. explanation C. analysis D. requirement Question 36. The word “striking” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to . A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful Question 37. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they . A. are simple in structure B. have been given scientific names C. are viewed positively by people D. are found mainly in temperate climates. Question 38. The word “exceed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to . A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to Question 39. What is the most distinguishing feature of butterfly diversity in the past century? A. Numerous patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups. C. The striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. D. The documentation phase of the process. Question 40. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists? A. European butterfly habitats. B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions. C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region. D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups. Question 41. All of the following are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT . A. differences between temperate and tropical zones. B. patterns of distribution of species in each region. C. migration among temperate and tropical zones. D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animal and plants. Question 42. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss? A. Their physical characteristics. B. Their adaptation to different habitats C. Their names D. Their variety Question 43. The author mentions “tropical Asia” in paragraph 3 as an example of a location where . A. butterfly behavior varies with climate B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established C. butterflies are affected by human populations D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species Question 44. The word “generated” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to . A. requested B. caused C. assisted D. estimated Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54 For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called “latchkey children”. They are children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their bad condition has become a subject of concern. Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “we had a school rule against wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I was constantly telling them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys; it never came to my mind what they meant.” Slowly, she learned that they were house keys. She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect working couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear wasthe biggest problem faced by children at home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being frightened. Many had nightmares and were worried about their own safety The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may hide in a shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume up. It’s hard to get statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are slow to admit that they leave their children alone. Question 45. The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means . A. a house with too much space B. a house with no furniture C. a house with no people inside D. a house with nothing inside Question 46. One thing that the children in the passage share is that . A. they all wear jewelry B. they spend part of each day alone C. they all watch TV D. they are from single-parent families Question 47. The phrase “latchkey children” in the passage means children who A. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere B. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves C. look after themselves while their parents are not at home D. are locked inside houses with latches and keys . Question 48. The main problem of latchkey children is that they . A. are growing in numbers B. watch too much television during the day C. are also found in middle-class families D. suffer a lot from being left alone Question 49. What is the main idea of the first paragraph? A. Why kids hate going home B. Children’s activities at home C. Bad condition of latchkey children D. How kids spend free time Question 50. Why did a lot of kids have chains around their necks with keys attached? A. They were fully grown and had become independent. B. They had to use the keys to open school doors. C. Schools didn’t allow them to wear jewelry, so they wore keys instead. D. They would use the keys to enter their houses when they came home. Question 51. What do latchkey children suffer most from when they are at home alone? A. Tiredness B. Boredom C. Loneliness D. Fear Question 52. Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by . A. visiting their homes B. talking to them C. delivering questionaires D. interviewing their parents Question 53. What is the most common way for latchkey children to deal with fears? A. Talking to the Longs B. Having a shower C. Hiding somewhere D. Lying under a TV Question 54. It’s difficult to find out the number of latchkey children because . A. there are too many of them in the whole country B. most parents are reluctant to admit that they leave their children alone C. they hide themselves in shower stalls or under beds D. they do not give information about themselves for safety reasons Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 55 to 64. Set in the red desert of the central Australia in the mining town of the Coober Pedy. At first sight, the town looks similar to many other such communities, but Coober Pedy is different. Sixty percent of its population is some 4,000 people living underground. There are today about 800 underground houses as well as shops, hotels and even churches in the town and the (55) hills. Once a site has been chosen, special tunneling machines are (56) in to create passages and rooms in the sandstone. Rock pillars are left to (57) the roof, and doors and windows are cut into the front. Houses are of all shapes and (58) , the largest has twenty rooms, and some even have their own swimming pool. Living underground may sound strange but in fact it has a number of advantages. In summer, the temperature outside can reach an astonishing 47 degrees Celsius, and in winter the night can be (59) cold. However, inside the house it remains a steady 25 degrees Celsius all year (60) . Many people say that living underground makes them feel very secure. There is no problem with noise from the neighbors and the houses are not (61) by the fierce dust storms that regularly (62) through the area. And of course, if your family (63) or lots of friends come to stay, you can (64) dig another room. Question 55. A. near Question 56. A. brought Question 57. A. lift Question 58. A. sizes B. enclosing B. entered B. support B. areas C. close C. placed C. push C. volumes D. surrounding D. worked D. rise D. numbers Question 59. A. strongly Question 60. A. along Question 61. A. spoiled Question 62. A. pour Question 63. A. grows Question 64. A. only B. heavily B. round B. disturbed B. sweep B. rises B. always C. extremely C. across C. influenced C. flood C. stretches C. regularly D. sharply D. wide D. affected D. hurry D. explodes D. ever WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: Trang didn’t know how to solve the problem so she got poor marks  If ........................................................................................................................ Question 66: She started loving him 2 years ago  She fell .............................................................................................................. Question 67: The boy is too young to understand the problem  The boy isn’t ..................................................................................................... Question 68: No student in my class can run as fast as Jack  Jack is ................................................................................................................ Question 69: The children like to walk in the rain  The children enjoy ............................................................................................ Part II. In about 120 words, write a paragraph to describe a popular celebration in Vietnam that you like best KEY: 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. C 14. C 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. A 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. D 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. A 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. B 41. C 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. C 50. D 51. D 52. B 53. C 54. B 55. D 56. A 57. B 58. A 59. C 60. B 61. D 62. B 63. A 64. B WRITING 65. If Trang had known how to solve the problem, she wouldn’t have got poor marks 66. She fell in love with him 2 years ago 67. The boy isn’t old enough to understand the problem 68. Jack is the fastest runner in my class 69. The children enjoy walking in the rain Sở GDĐT Đồng Tháp Đơn vị: Trường THPT Phú Điền ĐỀ THI THỬ KỲ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2016 – ĐỀ CẤU TRÚC 2 Môn: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest. 1. A. friendly B. religion C. tent D. correct 2. A. population B. hope C. compose D. control Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from that of the rest 3. A. certificate B. apartment C. individual D. biology 4. A. interview B. shortage C. applicant D. supportive 5. A. irrigate B. cosmetic C. ancestry D. delicate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. 6. We ______ out as soon as it ________ raining? A. go/ will stop B. will go/ stops C. will go/ is stopping D. go/will have stopped 7. Margaret did not remember what I _________her the day before. A. would tell B. had told C. had been telling D. had been told 8. I am really __________in the way he talks, but the way he behaves. A. excited B. interested C. keened D. fond 9. I have lost my umbrella. I__________it on the bus. A. should have left B. can leave C. could leave D. must have left 10. Are you getting ______well at college? A. on B. off C. in D. over 11. “I _________to see the doctor if I were you.” A. was to go B. had gone C. would go D. would be going 12. The boys proposed that their group leader.................. a camping trip. A. organized B. organize C. organizes D. organizing 13. _______ in Rome than he was kidnapped. A. No sooner he arrived B. Had he no sooner arrived C. No sooner had he arrived D. No sooner he had arrived 14. He stopped working because he was too tired A. because of his tiredness B. since being tired C. for tired D. although his tiredness 15. I didn’t get the job ____________ I had all the necessary qualifications A. because B. because of C. although D. despite 16. Living in the city is getting__________. A. the more expensive and expensive B. more expensive and more expensive C. expensive and expensive D. more and more expensive 17. She applied for training as a pilot, but they turned her ______because of her poor eyesight. A. back B. up C. over D. down 18. She seemed quite interested in buying that house, but at the last moment, she changed her _____ A. mind B. thoughts C. offer D. opinion 19. My grandfather was a ______ smoker, so few people were surprised when he died of oral cancer. A. serial B. heavy C. big D. serious 20. She was a / an ______ wife who loved her husband more than anything else in the whole universe. A. devoted B. sincere C. intelligent D. caring 21. Different conservation efforts have been made in order to save _______ species. A. endangered B. danger C. dangerous D. endanger 22. Another conversation effort is the development of wildlife habitat reserves as they are suitable for their _______. A. surviving B. survival C. survivor D. survive 23. Professor Berg was very interested in the diversity of cultures all over the world. A. variety B. changes C. conservation D. number. 24. We are very anxious about the result of the exam. A. worried B. careful C. excited D. careless 25. She usually spends one hour driving to work every day. A. She usually works one hour every day. B. It usually takes her one hour to drive to work every day. C. She usually goes to work by car once a day. D. It usually takes her one hour to work on her car everyday. 26. I’d rather be hungry than eat that food. A. I am hungry and I want to eat that food. B. I can’t stand being hungry so I’ll eat that food. C. I am hungry enough to eat that food. D. I prefer being hungry to eating that food. 27. There are many factors contributing to air pollution. A. Air pollution results in many consequences. B. Air pollution is contributing to these phenomena. C. Air pollution is the result of burning forests. D. Factors contributing to air pollution are numerous. 28. “I’ve enjoyed myself very much. But it’s very late, so _________.” A. take good care B. have a good day C. goodbye for now D. it’s great fun, thanks 29. – Mike: “Our living standards have been improved greatly.” – Susan: “_________.” A. Thank you for saying so B. Sure. I couldn’t agree more C. No, it’s nice to say so D. Yes, it’s nice of you to say so Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 30. (A) The very first night I (B) was in Australia, I (C) couldn't have slept until early (D) in the morning. 31. I (A) didn’t see Marry since she (B) went (C) to live in (D) the capital 32. It (A) was in this school (B) where I studied (C) when I was (D) a little girl. 33. The meeting was so (A) length that (B) many people had (C) to leave before it (D) ended. 34. (A) Follow vaporisation, a (B) reduction in temperature will (C) result in (D) condensation. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Widespread doubt about women’s intellectual ability led most societies to deny ……35……., employment and many legal and political rights to women. It was men …36…….. controlled most positions of employment and power in society. The struggle …37……. women’s rights – the rights that …38…….. the same social, economic, and political status for women as for men – began in the 18th century during a period known as the Age of Enlightenment. Duuring this period, ……39….. philosophers in Europe began to argue that all individuals, male or female, were born with natural ……40….. that made them free and equal. These pioneer thinkers advocated that women should not be discriminated against on the ……41… of their sex. Today, although their status ……42….. in different countries, women in most parts of the world have gained ……43….. legal rights. The most important of these are: the right to have equal work opportunities and pay to men, the right to vote, and the right ……44….. formal education. 35. A. education B. educated C. educating D. educational 36. A. which B. where C. who D. whose 37. A. of B. against C. for D. to 38. A. has B. establish C. improve D. change 39. A. political B. politic C. politics D. politicized 40. A. rights B. authority C. power D. influence 41. A. fact B. matter C. basis D. basic 42. A. changes B. tranforms C. alters D. varies 43. A. signified B. significance C. significantly D. significant 44. A. at B. to C. for D. in Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Pandemic (dịch bệnh) Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no diseases, the population would grow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources. So in a way, diseases are nature's way of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics. Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a few things in common. First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to spread to a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread. While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in 2002 and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic. 45. This passage is mainly about ____. A. how to prevent pandemic diseases. B. pandemic diseases. C. pandemic diseases throughout history. D. why pandemics happen. 46. According to paragraph 1, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth? A. They prevent pandemics. B. They help control the population. C. They help the world grow quickly. D. They kill too many people. 47. Based on the information in the passage the term pandemics can best be explained as ___. A. diseases with no cure B. diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people C. a deadly kind of flu D. new diseases like SARS or the Marburg virus 48. According to the passage, what causes pandemics? A. Changes in a disease that the body cannot fight B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of diseases C. Population growth that the world cannot support D. The failure to make new medicines 49. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT that ____. A. it involved a new kind of flu virus B. it killed over 25 million people C. it was the last pandemic in history D. it took a little over a week to kill its victims 50. The word it in the passage refers to ____. A. disease B. flu virus C. pandemics D. bodies 51. Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic diseases? A. They spread from people to people very slowly. B. They may kill many people very quickly. C. They do not kill people very quickly. D. They kill all the victims. 52. According to paragraph 3, why hasn't Marburg virus become a pandemic? A. It is not a deadly disease. B. It does not spread from person to person easily. C. Doctors have prevented it from becoming a pandemic. D. It kills people too quickly. 53. The word monitor in the passage is closest in meaning to ____. A. fight B. prevent C. watch D. avoid 54. The author mentions SARS in order to ____. A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease. B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic. C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic. D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. What I love about my job is the variety. I get enquiries (việc điều tra) from people all over the world asking me how they should go about setting up their own website. I’ve been asked about so many subjects - anything from someone wanting to teach people how to throw boomerangs to another people selling paper flowers which they make at home in their spare time. Obviously with all the thousands of websites available at the click of a button, you want to create an impression with your website so that it becomes a must-see destination. Not everyone is prepared, however, for the way in which a website can become so popular that it actually has to be closed down. When people first set up their websites they probably pay their web advertiser a monthly fee based on the number of hits (visitors) or page impressions their site receives. If they can pay their monthly fee without it costing them too much, that is the best that most people hope for. One guy, Pete Bennett, whom I helped, wanted to set up a one-stop shop to provide decent images of the world’s flags. He’d been fascinated by flags since his boyhood and had no idea that thousands of other people share his passion. Anyway, in one month his web page had over 1.5 million hits. As a result his internet provider trebled (gấp 3) the fee that he was being charged. He wasn’t a rich person and he couldn’t afford to spend that amount of money on a hobby without any benefit to him, so he decided to carry advertising on his site. He found a company which specializes in smaller sites and adverts were added to the pages on his website. So, although he doesn’t make a huge profit, at least his hobby provides him with a small income. If you have specialist skills or expertise, it can pay you to sell the products that people want. I helped one woman design a page to advertise the fact that she tells fortunes, based on the information that her clients supply her with. If you want her to tell your fortune, you fill in a questionnaire online -- your age, date of birth, hobbies, interests and so on and for a small fee she emails you back your fortune. You can print it out and it looks really good, decorated with moons and stars, your zodiac (hoàng đạo) sign and your birthstone. I tried it myself and although I’m not sure I believe it, my future according to her is positive and exciting. I also found out that for someone born in August, like me, the birthstone is a peridot (đá/ngọc peridot), a pale green stone which I’d never even heard of! I also get a fair number of complaints from people e-mailing me to say that they can’t access the website. When they click on the site a message appears on their screen saying ‘An error has occurred in the script (bản chính) on this page’. This usually happens when someone has tried to achieve fancy effects on their website by using programming techniques based on a scripting language. This means that unless they really know what they are doing, whoever designed the site has probably made a mistake in their programming. This is where people like me come in. Most computer instruction guides make things appear quite straightforward, but unless you’re very skilled, you’re likely to run into problems. It’s generally worth getting a professional to help you set up your site in the first place -- otherwise people like me would be out of work. And let’s face it, this is big business. 55. What does Paul Howells enjoy most about his job? A. Dealing with different people. B. His worldwide contacts. C. Teaching design skills. D. The range of topics. 56. What does Paul mean by ‘a must-see destination’ in paragraph 2? A. A website that can no longer be seen B. A website that everyone wants to visit C. A website that does not make a charge D. A website that has been well prepared 57. Why did Pete Bennett set up a website on flags? A. He knew lots of people shared his interest. B. He hoped to make a lot of money. C. A web advertiser wanted to sell flags. D. He’d been interested in flags for years. 58. What word can best replace the word “hits” in paragraph 3? A. bad effects B. beats C. attacks D. visits 59. Why did Pete Bennett accept advertising on his website? A. To attract more hits. B. To repay the huge fee. C. To add more interest. D. To help him earn some money. 60. Who are the “clients” in paragraph 4 referred to? A. Interested people B. Web page designers C. Internet providers D. Product advertisers 61. Why do error messages sometimes appear? A. People make a mistake in their e-mail address. B. People try to put too much on the web page. C. People have used a program incorrectly. D. People have clicked on the wrong button. 62. What comment does Paul make about setting up a website? A. It is usually fairly easy to do. B. You must use a good instruction guide. C. It can be quite complicated. D. You should rely on your own skills. 63. What word can best replace the word “script” in paragraph 5? A. instruction B. picture C. handwriting D. play 64. What does Paul’s final sentence suggest about his work? A. There’s a lot of money to be made in designing websites. B. There are far too many websites on the internet. C. There’s a big chance of becoming unemployed. D. There are more web page designers than necessary. Writing: Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.