Tài liệu Practice_tests for B1

PRACTICE TESTS FOR LEVEL B1+ Virginia Evans - Jenny Dooley - Chavdar Zdravchev CONTENTS TEST A LISTENING COMPREHENSION .......................................................................3 READING COMPREHENSION ...........................................................................4 USE OF ENGLISH ....................................................................................................5 WRITING .......................................................................................................................9 TEST B LISTENING COMPREHENSION .....................................................................10 READING COMPREHENSION .........................................................................11 USE OF ENGLISH ..................................................................................................12 WRITING .....................................................................................................................16 TEST C LISTENING COMPREHENSION .....................................................................17 READING COMPREHENSION .........................................................................18 USE OF ENGLISH ..................................................................................................20 WRITING .....................................................................................................................24 TEST D LISTENING COMPREHENSION .....................................................................25 READING COMPREHENSION .........................................................................26 USE OF ENGLISH ..................................................................................................29 WRITING .....................................................................................................................33 TEST E LISTENING COMPREHENSION .....................................................................34 READING COMPREHENSION .........................................................................35 USE OF ENGLISH ..................................................................................................38 WRITING .....................................................................................................................42 KEYS ..................................................................................................................................................44 TAPESCRIPTS ..............................................................................................................................49 © EXPRESS PUBLISHING PHOTOCOPIABLE PRACTICE TEST FOR LEVEL B1+ TEST A LISTENING COMPREHENSION PART 1 DIRECTIONS: You will hear a text twice. Before you listen to the recording, read the statements below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the statements, but DO NOT take any notes! As you listen to the recording for the second time, you are allowed to mark the statements as true or false (T / F). 1. …… Lissi looks after elderly people in London. 2. …… Lissi lives in a very small house of her own. 3. …… Part of Lissi's job is to do some housework. 4. …… Lissi has never been to London before. 5. …… She finds London quite an exciting city. 6. …… Lissi didn't find the agency she chose on the Internet. 7. …… To become an au pair, one is interviewed by an agency. 8. …… Lissi is pleased with and fond of the family she works for. 9. …… A girl Lissi knows had a much better family than hers. 10. …… You have to be fluent in English to start working as an au pair. TEST A READING COMPREHENSION PART 2 TASK 1 DIRECTIONS: Read the text below. Then, read the questions that follow it and circle the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C or D). I am sometimes amazed at my own children, the way they get angry if they have to do the dishes twice in one week, the way they act over small bumps and cuts. As a mum, I've had to teach myself to admire bloody baby teeth and clean the dirt from scraped knees. However, in my mind, my mother's voice and that of my grandmother still come into my head. "Oh for goodness sake, you aren't hurt!" they used to say. For a moment, I want to tell this new generation about my little brother calmly spitting out a handful of tooth pieces and going back in to grab the biggest cow in the barn. I want to tell my children how tough I was, falling asleep at the table with hands so sore that I couldn't hold a fork, or about their grandmother, who cut off three of her fingers on a piece of farm equipment but finished the job before she came in to get help. For a moment, I'm terrified I'll make a mistake and tell them to get tough. Like my parents and grandparents, I was born and trained to live on a farm. I could rope horses and ride a tractor as well as my brother, but being female, I also learned to bake bread and can vegetables, and keep my opinions to myself when others were talking. When an unmarried neighbour asked me out when I was fifteen, my parents were proud and hopeful. Though he was twelve years older than I was, his other numbers were very promising. He and his father had over fifteen hundred cows on 36,000 acres of land. 11) The text is probably... A a newspaper advertisement. C an extract from a book. B a television commercial. D a magazine article. 12) The author is thinking about her childhood because... A she is comparing herself to her children. B her children asked her about it. C she misses her family members. D she worries her children are weak. 13) From the text we know that the author... A didn't like her childhood. C has not changed over the years. B had a terrible mother and father. D had a difficult childhood. 14) "Oh for goodness sake, you aren't hurt!" is similar in meaning to... A "I am happy you didn't hurt yourself." B "You should have hurt yourself." C "I regret you didn't hurt yourself." D "You can't have hurt yourself." TEST A READING PART 2 TASK 2 DIRECTIONS: Mark the following statements as true or false (T/F). (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20) ……The author gets angry with her children's behaviour. ……The author's brother is younger than she is. ……The mother worked hard when she was young. ……The author did both farm work and housework. ……The author did not speak when men were around. ……The man who wanted to date the author was poor. USE OF ENGLISH PART 3 TASK 1 WORD FORMATION DIRECTIONS: Use the words in brackets to form words, which fit in the gaps. 21) It's the feeling of.........................................(FREE) that I enjoy most when I go skiing. 22) I not only find reading science fiction .................................... (RELAX) but I also get ideas for my compositions. 23) I've been playing with the band for a year now, and I get the same feeling of ......................................... (EXCITE) every time we play. 24) Painting is something that gives me a lot of .......................... (PLEASE). 25) What a day! My.........................................(ASSIST) was off work and the computers were down for 6 hours. 26) Language wasn't too big a problem because ......................... (AMAZE) almost everyone spoke English. 27) The architecture of modern buildings is just so ....................... (BORE) to look at. 28) There is more at Brown's than just fine food — our home ..................... (DELIVER) service is fast and efficient. 29) Don't just walk into the video store and choose the first DVD that catches your eye; go on a friend's ............................... (RECOMMEND). 30) I hate it when the pilot starts the engines and suddenly everyone goes quiet in ....................................................... (ANTICIPATE). TEST A PART 3 TASK 2 CLOZE TEST DIRECTIONS: Read the text and for each gap circle the letter (A, B, C or D) of the word or phrase that best suits each space. Skiing is a sport like golf where practice alone is not enough. Whatever your level, from complete beginner to potential World Cup star, you need expert 31)........ to progress. Throughout the winter, a growing 32)....... of specialist courses in Europe and North America promise to correct bad technique by providing a friendly alternative approach to conventional ski schools. The nervous skier The feeling of anxiety and a general 33)......... of control on skis are all too often what holds people back. Small children whiz past, bigger snowboarders thunder by, and you sometimes feel like 34)....... and going home. The Ski Company (not to be confused with the luxury tour operator of the same name), holds courses for nervous skiers based in Courchevel, with its gentle and beautifully 35)............ slopes. The teaching principle is based on putting you in 36)............ of your skis so that you can decide where you want to go and how fast. Tip: Learning to relax is one of the key elements to 37)............ a better skier. Dates: January 19th and January 26th, maximum eight skiers per group. Level 1 is for people who are 38)............ on the nursery slopes and level 2 is for those who can handle an easy 'black' run down the slope. Holiday cost: £740 for seven nights, six-day lift pass, three hours of 39)............ and video analysis five days a week, flights and transfers. Course only: £200 for three teaching hours on 40)............ of the five days. Bookings: The Ski Company Telephone #: 0870 12345678; Website: www.theskicompany.co.uk 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A A A A A A A A A A learning amount famine surrendering maintained responsibility converting convinced tuition other B B B B B B B B B B coaching quantity shortage giving up retained duty growing confident education each C C C C C C C C C C studying number excess submitting destroyed charge turning persuaded knowledge another D D D D D D D D D D discovering capacity lack providing supported obligation becoming doubtful awareness few TEST A PART 3 TASK 3 SENTENCE COMPLETION DIRECTIONS: Circle the answer (A, B, C or D) which best completes the meaning of each sentence. 41) My daughter is not …….... to go to school on her own every morning. A old enough C too old B enough old D very old 42) Timothy ………. English at one of the best language schools in the country. A used to teach C was used to teach B would teaching D got used to teach 43) It is high time Daniel ……….. playing computer games every evening. A stops C will stop B stopped D has stopped 44) If you ……….. Jenny, tell her to phone her husband immediately. A see C have seen B will see D will be seeing 45) It is the first time my best friend Georgiana ……… plane. A travelled C is travelling B travels D has ever travelled 46) She asked herself if she ……….. New York and Washington DC again. A will ever visit C would ever visit B had ever visited D has ever been visiting 47) Both Kate and Jack are keen on ..… in the mountains in the winter months. A to go ski C going skiing B go to ski D go skiing 48) Unlike my mother, my father thinks that our country house needs ……….. . A to be redecorated C to redecorate B to have redecorated D to be redecorating 49) It was during the winter holidays …….... Alex visited Bansko in Bulgaria. A that C where B when D what 50) "What ……..… Jack? Look at your new T-shirt. It’s covered in mud." A were you doing C will you have been doing B have you been doing D had you been doing TEST A PART 3 TASK 4 SENTENCE TRANSFORMATIONS DIRECTIONS: Rephrase the following sentences keeping the original meaning. (51) She will probably come to Jim's farewell party. She is........................................................................................................ (52) I advise you to apologize to your girlfriend. You'd ....................................................................................................... (53) John hasn't finished doing his homework yet. John is still................................................................................................ (54) It's been two years since I last went to the cinema. I haven't.................................................................................................... (55) Jessica is not in the mood to go out tonight. Jessica doesn't feel ................................................................................... (56) Although Maria studied hard, she didn't pass the exam. In spite...................................................................................................... (57) This house is so expensive that we can't buy it. It is ........................................................................................................... (58) My neighbour pays a woman to look after her daughter. My neighbour has .................................................................................... (59) "Where are you planning to spend your holiday?" Kate asked me. Kate asked me where …………………………....................................... (60) They are building a new mall in our neighbourhood. A new mall................................................................................................ TEST A WRITING PART 4 DIRECTIONS: Choose one of the tasks below and write your answer in about 100-120 words. 1. Read the extract from Amanda's letter. Write a reply telling her about your hobby or hobbies and ask three questions about her best friend's party. Remember the rules of letter writing. I would love to know what you do in your spare time. Do you have any hobbies? How often do you see your friends? I must stop now, as I need to get ready for my best friend's birthday party this evening. It will be great fun. 2. What is a typical Monday like for you? Write a composition in which you include information about what you do in the morning, in the afternoon and in the evening. You might find the following vocabulary useful: • get up • have lunch • have breakfast • do my homework • leave home • eat dinner • walk to school • spend the evening • classes start/finish • go to bed etc. TEST B LISTENING COMPREHENSION PART 1 TASK 1 DIRECTIONS: You will hear an interview twice. Before you listen to the recording, read the questions and the four choices below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the questions and the four choices, but DO NOT take any notes! As you listen to the recording for the second time, you are allowed to circle the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C or D). 1) Cynthia Garfield... A works for a company called Perfect Parties. B has a company called Perfect Parties. C wants to start her own business. D has a starting business. 2) Cynthia helps other people... A find someone to marry. C print party invitations. B plan and organise parties. D decide when to hold parties. 3) The interviewer is impressed by... A how much money Cynthia makes. B how many parties Cynthia organises. C how Cynthia organises her time. D how well-organised Cynthia's parties are. 4) Cynthia started her company because... A she didn't like the job she was doing. B she was working too hard. C she realized people were too busy to plan parties. D her relatives didn't like having parties. 5) The interviewer asks Cynthia to advise listeners on how to... A give successful parties. C begin their own businesses. B work for successful companies. D find good jobs. PART 1 TASK 2 DIRECTIONS: You will hear an interview twice. Before you listen to the recording, read the statements below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the statements, but DO NOT take any notes! As you listen to the recording for the second time, you are allowed to mark the statements as true or false (T/F). 6) ….. 7) ….. 8) ….. 9) ….. 10) ….. You have to send in your entry in the next two days. You cannot send songs written by someone else. If you win, you'll be able to record your winning entry. You must be over 18 years old to enter the competition. You will get your cassette back after the competition. TEST B READING COMPREHENSION PART 2 TASK 1 DIRECTIONS: Read the text below. Then, read the statements that follow it and mark them as true or false (T/F). The Lady with the Lamp Less than 200 years ago, most hospitals were dirty and unhealthy places. Then, one person changed everything. Florence Nightingale was the first great nurse of the world. She changed nursing into a respected profession, and she set standards for clean, safe hospitals all over the world. Her picture hangs on the walls of many hospitals. When Florence was twelve years old, she decided she wanted to do something useful with her life. She enjoyed visiting sick people in the neighbourhood. Florence was very special because most Victorian middle-class women didn't have careers, but Florence wanted to become a nurse. Her parents wanted her to get married, but their disapproval didn't stop her from doing what she wanted. Florence went to Germany to learn about nursing. At that time, nurses learned through experience, not through training. Florence looked after sick people, gave them medicine and helped during operations. In 1854, Britain entered the Crimean War. Florence and a team of 38 nurses went to the Crimea to help the wounded soldiers. The military hospitals were dirty and badly organized. Florence made the hospitals clean and safe. The number of deaths in hospitals went down from 40% to 2%. Florence was kind and gentle with the soldiers. She talked to them and gave them hope. When she walked around the hospital at night, she carried a lamp and that's how she got the title 'The Lady with the Lamp'. After the war, Florence wrote a book explaining how to make hospitals better. People from all over the world asked for her advice on designing hospitals. Florence thought that nurses should learn through both experience and training. In 1860, she opened her training school for nurses. Today, the Nightingale Nurses still care for the sick and the poor. Florence died on 13th August 1910 in London. She was 90 years old. On her gravestone, it says "F. N. Born 1820. Died 1910." She didn't want any other memorial. (11) ….. Florence Nightingale used to clean hospitals. (12) ….. When Florence was 12, she looked after people who were ill. (13) ….. Florence Nightingale was not like other women of her time. (14) ….. Her parents were happy that she wanted to be a nurse. (15) ….. Florence Nightingale trained to be a nurse in Crimea. (16) ….. Florence Nightingale designed a number of hospitals. (17) ….. When the war was over, Florence travelled all over the world. (18) ….. The school Florence Nightingale started is still open today. TEST B PART 2 DIRECTIONS: TASK 2 Circle the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C or D). (19) The text... A tells the story of a military hospital. B explains how nursing started. C is Florence Nightingale's life story. D describes life during the Crimean War. (20) The text is most probably part of... A an advertisement. B a news article. C a magazine article. D an interview. USE OF ENGLISH PART 3 TASK 1 WORD FORMATION DIRECTIONS: Use the words in brackets to form words, which fit in the gaps. FLORIDA Florida is in the 21)................................ (SOUTH) United States of America. Many people live there and many others want to live there. Every day, around 700 people move to Florida. Also, many 22) .............................. (TOUR) choose Florida for their holidays. The sun shines in Florida for 300 days a year, so it's not 23) ....................... (SURPRISE) that most people spend a lot of time on the white sands of Miami Beach. The Florida Everglades is the second largest national park in America. Dangerous animals, such as alligators and 24) ............................. (POISON) snakes, live there. Lots of birds live there too, 25) ........................... (INCLUDE) pelicans and herons. The most popular tourist 26) .............................. (ATTRACT) in Florida is Disney World in Orlando. More than 20 million people visit it every year. You can meet all the Disney characters and go on lots of 27) .......................... (EXCITE) rides - everyone has a fantastic time. Make sure you spend at least one day here. Sea World is also in Orlando and you can see 28)........................ (PERFORM) by whales and dolphins. You can also find out about Sea World's special 29) ........................... (BREED) programme and the Animal Rescue Team who will tell you how to help 30) ....................................... (DANGER) animals. Finally, Florida also has some interesting trivia. You might not know this but the first suntan cream was invented in Miami by a chemist in 1944. Miami also had the first cash-point machine for roller-bladers! TEST B PART 3 TASK 2 CLOZE TEST DIRECTIONS: Read the text and for each gap circle the letter (A, B, C or D) of the word that best suits each space. "Turkey Day" In America, the last Thursday in November is a national holiday called Thanksgiving. People travel to be with their families and friends and to 31)............ a special meal. In New York, there is the Macy's Thanksgiving parade. More than two million people 32)............ the parade, and people all over America watch it on television. The turkey is the 33)............ of Thanksgiving and the holiday is sometimes called Turkey Day. This is because the dinner is roast turkey with lots of vegetables. Americans love eating turkey. They now eat twice as much as they did twenty years 34)............ - the average American consumes eight and a half kilos of turkey each year. Forty-five million turkeys are eaten each year at Thanksgiving. Most farm turkeys live 35)............ factory farms. Many people think that factory farming is cruel 36)............ up to twenty five thousand birds live in one shed with hardly any space to move. About one hundred years ago, wild turkeys in America were nearly extinct because people 37)............ the forests where they lived in order to build houses. Now, there are 38)............ programmes to bring turkeys back to the countryside. In 1959, there were only 450,000 wild turkeys, but in 1990, there were three and a half million. Benjamin Franklin, one of the 39)............ fathers of the United States, loved wild turkeys. He wanted the wild turkey to be the emblem of America instead of the eagle which was finally chosen to 40)............ the country. B like C benefit D promote 31 A enjoy B attend C arrive D come 32 A go B logo C signal D symbol 33 A badge B past C ago D formerly 34 A before B at C on D into 35 A in B like C while D though 36 A as B destroyed C fought D conquered 37 A defeated B renovation C restoration D conservation 38 A reservation B beginning C leading D establishing 39 A founding C reveal D represent 40 A demonstrate B express TEST B PART 3 TASK 3 SENTENCE COMPLETION DIRECTIONS: Circle the answer (A, B, C or D) which best completes the meaning of each sentence. 41) Janet ... the housework when I called her and invited her to dinner. A has been doing C was doing B had been doing D will be doing 42) When we lived in Burgas, our mum ... us to the beach every day in the summer. A was taking C is taking B would take D had taken 43) This time tomorrow, I ... to Budapest where I will attend a seminar. A will fly C will be flying B will have been flying D am going to fly 44) Most of my classmates think that watching TV ... listening to music. A isn't as interesting than C is as interesting as B is more interesting from D is the least interesting than 45) Peter's car broke down an hour ago and he went to Ben's garage to ... . A have him to repair it C have it repaired B have it repairing D have him repaired it 46) The lady ... with the luggage yesterday invited me to lunch at her house. A which I helped C I helped B that helped my D whose help me 47) Sam was upset because the school performance ... by the time he got there. A was finished C was being finished B had been finished D had finished 48) Every day, Jessica and Tim spend at least two to three hours ... the Internet. A surf C to surfing B to surf D surfing 49) Jane is happy as the doctor told her that there wasn't ... wrong with her baby. A something C everything B nothing D anything 50) The carpet in our living room is a bit dirty. I think it needs ... . A clean C cleaning B to clean D to be cleaning TEST B PART 3 TASK 4 SENTENCE TRANSFORMATIONS DIRECTIONS: Rephrase the following sentences keeping the original meaning. (51) "I was watering the flowers when the telephone rang," she said. She said that ............................................................................................. (52) Let's go to the cinema tonight, Doug. How about................................................................................................ (53) Residents must lock the front door by 11 o'clock at night at the latest. The front door .......................................................................................... (54) Leave on time or you will miss the train. You will miss the train if ......................................................................... (55) When did you last go to the theatre? How long has ........................................................................................... (56) Vanessa isn't in the habit of sending textmessages. Vanessa isn't ............................................................................................ (57) "I am sorry I cancelled the appointment," the dentist said. The dentist apologised ............................................................................. (58) It is a one-hour flight from Sofia to Athens. It............................................................................................................... (59) I'm sure it wasn't Jack who broke the living room window. It can't....................................................................................................... (60) It's a pity you didn't attend Vicky's birthday party yesterday. If only....................................................................................................... TEST B WRITING PART 4 DIRECTIONS: Choose one of the tasks below and write your answer in about 100-120 words. 1. Read the extract from Helen's letter. Write a reply to Helen, who has just got back from holiday, telling her about your new school. Ask three questions about her new pet. Remember the rules of letter writing. I hope you like your new school. What is it like? How about your teachers? What is your favourite lesson? Why? I am very excited because I am getting a dog tomorrow! I really can't wait! 2. Write a composition about a trip you will never forget. Say when and where you went, who you went with, what the weather was like, what you did and saw there and why you will never forget this experience. TEST C LISTENING COMPREHENSION PART 1 TASK 1 DIRECTIONS: You will hear some radio adverts about holidays twice. Before you listen to the recording, read the headings below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the headings, but DO NOT take any notes! As you listen to the recording for the second time, you are allowed to choose the correct heading (A-J) for each advert. A B C D E F G H I J 1 2 3 4 5 PART 1 Kids Only! Safari Adventure Winter Sun Paradise for Winter Sports Hiking Holiday Relax in the Tropics Island Hopping Mediterranean Cruise A Taste of France Historians' Getaway TASK 2 DIRECTIONS: You will hear a text about sitting an exam twice. Before you listen to the recording, read the statements below. As you listen to the recording for the first time, look at the statements, but DO NOT take any notes! As you listen to the recording for the second time, you are allowed to mark the statements as true or false (T / F). 6) 7) 8) 9) 10) ….. ….. ….. ….. ….. Students must not take their bags into the room. Students may leave the room for a drink. You will be removed from the hall for talking during the exam. Students should make notes on the answer sheet. The duration of the exam is 120 minutes. TEST C READING COMPREHENSION PART 2 TASK 1 DIRECTIONS: Read what some students' diets are like and answer the questions below. There is one sentence that is not needed. WHAT'S YOUR DIET LIKE? A B C D E F I eat normally - not too many fatty foods or sweets and I try to eat some fruit every day. I buy everything fresh. I don't eat foods grown by farmers that use lots of chemicals, and I don't buy things that have lots of packaging. I shop at the local butcher's and greengrocer's rather than the supermarket. I don't want to get fat. I check how many calories there are in things. I never eat between meals, and I usually eat salads. If I get thirsty, I drink a glass of water. I eat whatever I like. My favourite foods are chocolate, crisps, pizza and chips. I don't like cooking, so I usually buy frozen goods or get a takeaway. I'm not very adventurous when it comes to food. I usually have cereal or toast for breakfast, a sandwich for lunch and then, for dinner, it's usually meat and potatoes. I can't eat any dairy products like milk or cheese. Even when I was a child, I didn't drink milk. I have to be careful about what I eat so that I don't get ill, but... Which student: ………. (11) eats a lot of junk food? ………. (12) has a balanced diet? ………. (13) can't eat something for health reasons? ………. (14) is careful about their weight? ………. (15) eats healthily and thinks about the environment? TEST C PART 2 TASK 2 DIRECTIONS: Read the text below. Then, read the questions that follow it and circle the letter of the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Just then she heard something splashing about, and she swam closer to see what it was. At first, she thought it was a walrus or hippopotamus, but then she remembered how small she was now, and she soon saw that it was only a mouse that had fallen in like herself. "Should I," thought Alice, "speak to this mouse? Everything is so out-of-theordinary down here, that I think it can probably talk. Anyway, there's no harm in trying." So she began: "O Mouse, do you know the way out of this pool? I am very tired of swimming about here, O Mouse!" (Alice thought this must be the right way of speaking to a mouse: she had never done such a thing before, but she remembered having seen in her brother's Latin grammar book, "A mouse - of a mouse - to a mouse - a mouse - O mouse!"). The mouse looked at her curiously, and seemed to wink at her with one of its little eyes, but it said nothing. "Perhaps it doesn't understand English," thought Alice; so she began again: "Ou est ma chatte?" (Where is my cat?) which was the first sentence in her French lesson-book. The mouse suddenly jumped out of the water and started to shake with fright. "Oh, I beg your pardon!" cried Alice quickly, afraid that she had hurt the poor animal's feelings. "I forgot you don't like cats." "Not like cats!" screamed the mouse, in a high, passionate voice. "No mouse likes cats!" (16) Alice is... A at a zoo. C at school. B in a library. D in water. (17) Alice wanted to talk to the mouse because … A she wanted to see if it would answer. B it was not an ordinary mouse. C she thought it would help her. D she liked speaking French. (18) The mouse spoke when Alice ... A said she was sorry. C spoke a different language. B mentioned a cat. D read something to it. (19) The mouse... A really didn't like Alice. C was terribly cold. B shouted loudly at Alice. D was like other mice. (20) This text is about... A a little girl with a problem. C a little girl who likes mice. B a mouse who hates cats. D a mouse that speaks English. TEST C USE OF ENGLISH PART 3 TASK 1 WORD FORMATION DIRECTIONS: Use the words in brackets to form words, which fit in the gaps. EARLY INTRODUCTION TO FOREIGN LANGUAGES Children growing up in this changing world will have to understand and speak more than one language. Even though education in a second language 21) ............................ (TRADITION) doesn't begin until later, evidence is mounting that children learn languages more easily if they start early in life. 22)........................................ (EXPOSE) to foreign languages must begin early, in the home. Children can learn as many 23) ............................. (SPEECH) languages as possible as long as they hear them systematically and regularly. Leaders in many professions realize that 24)....................... (FLUENT) in a foreign language is essential in their fields. The 25)....................... (ABLE) to speak a foreign language has never been more important. While there is 26)............................... (AGREE) that early language learning is important, it has not been implemented on a widespread basis in primary schools. Parents must take an active role in 27)............................. (INTRODUCE) their children to foreign languages. Multilingual books, audio tapes and videos are 28)........................ (WIDE) available in libraries and bookstores. The increasing 29) ......................... (PRESENT) of computers in the home offers another powerful tool for home language learning. By helping your child, you'll have made a 30)............................. (LAST) contribution to his or her quality of life and understanding of others.