Tài liệu Skkn how to conquer reading comprehension questions in the gcse

INDEX NUMBER IN ORDER 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 TABLE OF CONTENTS PAGE PART 1: INTRODUCTION 1.1. Reasons to choose the theme 1.2. Objective and Purposes of the research 1.3. Methods of the research 1.4. Scope of the research PART 2: PROBLEM SOLVING 2.1. Theoretical basis of the problem 2.2. Practiccal basis of the problem 2.3. Solution to the problem 2.3.1. Tips to do reading comprehension tests 2.3.2. Types of reading comprehension questions in the GCSE and how to deal with each type. 2.4. Practice exercises 2.5. Sample test for assessment of experimental results. 2.6. The effect of experience initative PART 3: CONCLUSIONS AND RECOMMENDATIONS 3.1. Conclusion 3.2. Recommendations REFERENCES 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 10 16 19 20 20 20 1. INTRODUCTION 1.1. Reasons to choose the theme Nowadays English has become an international language since it is widely used in many parts of the world and in many fields of our life. As a result, in Vietnam, English has been a core subject at school and a compulsory subject in the GCSE. In the GCSEs, there are twelve- thirteen reading comprehesion questions with two passages. Passage 1 contains 5 questions and passage 2 contains 7-8 questions. Therefore, reading comprehension question accounts for 24 percent of the total mark of the test.However, Studying English to get ready for the GCSE , especially reading comprehension section is a hard problem and usually makes students nervous and discouraged. Most students fear the reading comprehension questions and they often lose the most points. They are overwhelmed with vocabulary they do not know the meaning. I notice that the majority of students always find it hard to do this type of tests. At first sight, they do not figure out the content of the passage, but they are not patient enough to read the passage to the end under the pressure of time during the test. Also, this part accounts for a small percentage in the whole test. As a result, students usually put this part aside and return to it at the end of the test time. At that time, students will make ticks on this part without intention. From the fact above, my concern is how to help students overcome the fears of comprehensive questions and conquer the questions in reading comprehension section to get better result in the GCSE. Owing to these necessities, I have made up my mind to choose “how to conquer reading comprehension questions in the GCSE” as my topic of the study. 1.2.Objective and Purposes of the research The objective of the study is to help my students do reading comprehension questions in the GCSE effectively. The main purposes of the research are: - To help the 12th grade students at Nhu Xuan High School recognise types of reading comprehesion questions in the GCSE. - To provide students some ways to confidently and effectively deal with common types of comprehensive reading questions in the national exam. - To improve students’ reading skills by analysing the tests in the previous GCSEs. - To help students be more confident when taking the coming national exam to get full mark on the reading comprehension section of the test. 1.3. Method of the research. I have used a variety of research methods in the process of doing my study: 1 - Teaching English reading lessons at some 12 classes at Nhu Xuan High school to find out the reasons why students do not do the reading comprehension questions effectively. - Giving students some reading practice tests, observing them do the tests, measuring the time they spend doing reading comprehenson section. - Asking students some questions related to reading comprehension test to discover which types of reading comprehension questions they are afraid of , which one they are good or bad at. - Providing students with a number of tests for practice and assessment. - Jotting down the students’ results, the questions many students make mistakes. - Analysing the students’s work and comparing with the previous result to find out what are students’s strength and weakness. 1.4. Scope of the research. The study was carried on students at three classes 12A3, 12A4 and 12A5 at Nhu Xuan high school. 2. PROBLEM SOLVING 2.1. Theoretic basis of the problem Reading comprehension is not learned in a short time, it is a process that is learned over time. In other words, reading comprehension requires practice.Without reading comprehesion skills, they are unable to fully understand the content, predict what happen next. In reading comprehension test, not only reading skills but also vocabulary is tested. Therefore, students need strategies, some tips to conquer reading comprehension questions. 2.2. Practical basis of the problem Nhu Xuan high school is one of the mountainous schools in Thanh Hoa province. Students have not had much good chance of studying and using English until recently. There is a fact that the result of English in national examination of students at Nhu Xuan high school has not been good. I notice that the majority of students from my school refused to read the passages or only read them without intention, then choose the answers randomly. As a result, students did not make efforts into the reading comprehension section. Meanwhile this section accounts for approximately one fourths of the score in the whole test. Working as a teacher for a long time, I myself understand the nature of the problem and usually find it necessary to find out the ways to improve the situation. I try my best to do this research with a view to getting my students to benefit from it by giving students detailed tips and strategies for doing reading comprehension questions and sample passages to practice. 2.3. Solutions to the problem 2.3.1 Tips to do reading comprehension tests 2 Each reading passage is often followed by 5-8 questions of reading comprehension and vocabulary.Some students, especially average students, note that they are unable to finish all the questions in this section. Others cannot understand what the passage is about, so they do without intention and don’t know surely if their answer is true. Therefore, they need to make the most efficient use of their time in this section to get the highest score. The following tips are the best ways of attacking a reading passage to get the most questions correct in a limited amount of time. Do not spend too much time reading the passage. Remember that it is not expected of every student to undersatnd all the words, all the sentences and all the lines of the passage. Do not worry if a reading passage is on the topic we are unfamiliar. Keep in mind that all of the information that we need to answer the questions is included in the passage. Be familiar with questions: there are some common types of questions in the GCSE. Students will save time and get over them efectively if they get to know of types of questions and methods to deal with each type. Skim the reading passage to determine the main idea and the overall organizations of ideas in the passage. You do not need to understand every detail in each passage to answer the questions correctly. It is therefore a waste of time to read the passage with the intent of understanding every single detail before you try to answer the questions. Look ahead at the questions to determine what types of questions you must answer. Each type of question is answered in a different way. Read the part of the passage that contains the answers carefully. The answer will probably be in the same sentence (or one sentence before or after) the key word or idea. 2.3.2. Types of reading comprehension questions in the GCSE and how to deal with each type of question. The reading comprehension questions in GCSEs are designed to measure how well students comprehend what they read. Students have only about fifteen minutes to read two passages and answer 12-13 questions. Each passage has three or four types of questions. According to the sample test of the ministry of education and training in the year 2020, there are mainly five or six diferent comprehension questions that are tested in GCSEs: - Main idea question (tiltle question is mainly tested in the 2020 GCSE) - Vocabulary question. - Reference question. - Factual question. - Negative factual question - Inference question. 2.3.2.1. Main idea question 3 In the 2020 GCSE, students will be asked identify the title for the reading passage. This question is all really asking what primary point that the author is trying to get across in the passage, and it is not difficult to find the main idea by studying the topic sentence, which is most probably found at the beginning of a paragraph. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about main idea questions: MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS What is the topic of the passage? HOW TO What is the subject of the passage? IDENTIFY THE What is the main idea of the passage? QUESTIONS Which of the following would be the best title? WHERE TO The answer to this type of question can generally be FIND THE determined by looking at the first sentence of each ANSWER paragraph. 1.Read the first line of each paragraph. HOW TO 2.Look for a common theme or idea in the first lines. 3.Pass your eyes quickly over the rest of the passage to ANSWER THE check that you really have found the topic sentence(s). QUESTION 4.Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices. Example 1: In the GCSE examination 2017, the reading comprehension is that: Oxford University has released a sample of interview questions including what a rock looks like and how you listen to music - to help students who want to study at the top institution. Among the list of questions are: “What can historians not find out about the past?”, “Is religion of value whether or not there is a God?” and “How can we estimate the mass of the atmosphere?”. Prospective earth sciences students could be asked what a rock handed to them looks like, meanwhile chemistry candidates are asked to calculate how many different molecules can be made from six carbon atoms and 12 hydrogen atoms. In efforts to make the interview process more transparent, the prestigious university has released advice on how to answer the example questions just days after the deadline for applications closed. Dr Samina Khan, director of admissions and outreach, said: “Interviews will be an entirely new experience for most students, and we know many prospective applicants are already worried about being in an unfamiliar place and being questioned by people they have not met.” She added: “We want to underscore that every question asked by our tutors has a purpose, and that purpose is to assess how students think about their subject and respond to new information or unfamiliar ideas. No matter what kind of educational background or opportunities you have had, the interview should be an opportunity to present your interest and ability in your chosen 4 subject, since they are not just about recitingwhat you already know.” Question 35: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article? A. Oxford University: Lowering Standards in Times of Change! B. The History of Oxford’s Interviewing Schemes C. Oxford University Interview Questions: Would You Pass the Test? D. The Oxford’s Guide to Success in Job Interviews. In the above given passage, there are five paragraphs. Students should be sure to read the first sentence of each paragraph to determine the subject, title, or main idea. The first paragraph mentions types of interview questions that Oxford university has released. The next paragraphs of the passage mention advice on how to answer sample interview questions”. So the best title for the article is Oxford “University Interview Questions: Would You Pass the Test?”. Therefore, the best choice is answer C. 2.3.2.2. VOCABULARY QUESTIONS. In the test students will be asked to determine the meanings of the difficult words, a word that you are not expected to know. In this case, the passage will give you a clear indication of what the word means. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about vocabulary questions containing difficult words: VOCABULARY QUESTIONS CONTAINING DIFFICULT WORDS HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER - “What is the word/ phrase “...”closest meaning to? - The word/ phrase “...” closest meaning to ? - The word/ phrase “...” most likely means? The question usually tells you in which line of the passage the word can be found. 1. Find the word in the passage. HOW TO 2. Read the sentence that contains the word carefully. ANSWER THE 3. Look for context clues to help you understand the QUESTION meaning. 4. Choose the answer that the context indicates. EXAMPLE : A passage in the GCSE exam in the year 2018, code 403 Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer. A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400 families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase, entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these ideas in new neighborhoods across China. 5 (Adapted from by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries) "Advanced Reading Power" Question 38: The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means....... A. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays B. devices that monitor changes in temperature C. panels that convert solar energy into electricity D. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption Question 40: The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means....... A. being notified B. being certified C. being inspected D. being launched To answer question 38, students should look at the sentence that contains the word insulation .It is a substance that buiders use to make the house warmer in winter and cooler in summer. As a result, we can infer, the correct answer is D. To answer question 40, students should look at the sentence that contains the phrase “under way” : A larger project is under way in China.Therefore this phrase is a verb with passive meaning.we can see that this verb relates to project and base on the meaning of this sentence and the sentence before it to ifentify the correct answer is D. 2.3.2.3 Reference question In the Reading comprehension of the test, students will sometimes be asked to determine which noun a pronoun refers to. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about pronoun referents: PRONOUN REFERENTS HOW TO IDENTIFY The pronoun “…” in line X refers to which of the THE QUESTION following? The line where the pronoun is located is generally WHERE TO FIND given in the question. The noun that the pronoun refers THE ANSWER to is generally found before the pronoun. 1. Find the pronoun in the passage. (The line where the pronoun can be found is generally stated in the question.) HOW TO ANSWER 2. Look for nouns that come before the pronoun. THE QUESTION 3. Read the part of the passage before the pronoun carefully. 4. Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices EXAMPLE : In the GCSE 2018, Code 401 Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your 6 background relates to the specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. Question 38: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to....... A. the letter of application B. an opportunity C. your work D. the résumé To answer this question, students should look before the pronoun it for singular nouns that pronoun could refer to.the résumé, the letter of application, an opportunit, your work come before the pronoun, so they are possible answers. We should try the three possible answers in the sentence in place of the pronoun. Carefully read the sentence before and the sentence contains this pronoun, we can identify that “it” refers to the letter of application. So A is the correct answer. 2.3.2.4. Factual question A stated detail question asks about one piece of information in the passage rather than the passage as a whole. The answers to these questions are generally given in order in the passage, and the correct answer is often a restatement of what is given in the passage. This means that the correct answer often expresses the same idea as what is written in the passage, but the words are not exactly the same. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about stated detail questions: STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS - According to the passage, … HOW TO - It is stated in the passage … IDENTIFY THE - The passage indicates that … QUESTION - Which of the following is TRUE …according to the passage? WHERE TO The answers to these questions are found in order in the FIND THE passage ANSWER 1. Choose a key word in the question. 2. Skim in the appropriate part of the passage for the key HOW TO word or idea. 3. Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea ANSWER THE carefully. QUESTION 4. Look for the answer that restates an idea in the passage. 5. Eliminate the definitely wrong answers and choose the best answer from the remaining choices. EXAMPLE: Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby 7 tooth is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece of meat and feed it to a dog.( extracted from the GCSE exam 2017 ) Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse? A. In Mexico and Spain B. In Mongolia C. In Japan and Vietnam D. In Korea With this question, we need to focus on key words “where, lost tooth, taken away a mouse”. Then we look for the information in the passage. It is in the second sentence of the second paragraph. So the correct answer is A. 2.3.2.5. Negative factual question Students will sometimes be asked to find an answer that is not stated or not mentioned or not true in the passage. This type of question really means that three of the answers are stated, mentioned, or true in the passage, while one answer is not. The actual job is to find the three correct answers and then choose the letter of the one remaining answer. The following chart outlines the key informaton that students should remember about negatie factual questons HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER “UNSTATED” DETAIL QUESTIONS Which of the following is not stated …? Which of the following is not mentioned …? All of the following are true except …? The answers to these questions are found in order in the passage. 1. Choose a key word in the question. 2. Scan in the appropriate place in the passage for the key word (or related idea). HOW TO 3.Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea ca refully. ANSWER THE 4. Look for answers that are definitely true according to the QUESTION passage. Eliminate those answers. 5. Choose the answer that is not true or not discussed in the passage. Example: In English 12, page 163 and 164, Unit 15 “Woman in Society”, Part Reading, the last paragraph: Today, although their status varies in different countries, women in most parts of the world have gained significant legal rights. The most important of these are: the rig ht to have equal work opportunities and pay to men, the right to vote, and the right to formal education. 8 Question 5: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the last paragraph as one of women’s legal rights today? A.the right to hold property B.the right to equal pay equal employment opportunity rights D. the right to vote The question asks for the one answer that is not mentioned, so three of the answers are listed in the passage and one is not. Since the right to equal pay, equal employment opportunity rights, the right to vote, are listed in the passage, answers B, C, and D are incorrect. However, the right to hold property is not listed in the passage, so answer D is the best answer to this question. 2.3.2.6. Inference question You will sometimes be asked to answer a question by drawing a conclusion from a specific detail are details in the passage. Questions of this type contain the words implied, inferred, likely, or probably to let you know that the answer to the question is not directly stated. The following chart outlines the key information that students should remember about implied detail questions: IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTION HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION It is implied in the passage that … It can be inferred from the passage that … It is most likely that … What probably happened …? The answers to these questions are found in order in the passage. 1. Choose a key word in the passage. 2. Scan the passage for the key word (or a related idea). 3. Carefully read the sentence that contains the key word. 4. Look for a answer that could be true, according to that sentence. EXAMPLE : A passage in the GCSE examination in the year 2018, code 404 While watching sports on TV, the chances are children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it's highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behaviour and fair play aren't the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behaviour are reasonable ways of getting what you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behaviour. 9 However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasise to children the high reputation that well-behaved players have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople don't gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when not playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the antics of the badly behaved but often more publicised players. (Adapted from "New English File - Advanced" by Will Maddox) Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Well-mannered players sometimes display strong emotions after winning or losing a game. B. The media tend to turn the spotlight more on sportspeople's wrongdoings than on their good deeds. C. The well-behaved players in a game invariably display desirable conducts when not playing. D. Players with good attitudes make a greater contribution to their teams' budgets than others. To answer this question, students should read the last paragraph of the passge carefully, especially we should focus on the sentence : “ In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the antics of the badly behaved but often more publicised players”. Therefore, the correct answer is B. 2.4. PRACTICE EXERCISES PASSAGE 1: Read the Following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is really great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently. Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some culture, applauding in a theater 10 provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also convey certain cultural messages. Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based upon speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few. Question 1: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage? A. Gestures B. Signs and signals C. Speech D. Communication Question 2: What does the author say about the speech? A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors. B. It is the most advanced form of communication. C. It is necessary for communication to occur. D. It is the only true form of communication. Question 3: All of the following are true, EXCEPT______. A. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are found in every culture. B. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are very useful. C. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures also have some disadvantage. D. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are only used for long distance contact. Question 4: The phrase “impinge upon”- in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning______. A. prohibit B. affect C. vary D. improve Question 5: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to______. A. way B. environment C. signal D. speech PASSAGE 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The period from the late 1930s to the middle 1940s is known as the Golden Age of comic books. The modern comic book came about in the early 1930s in the United States as a giveaway premium to promote the sales of a whole range of household products such as cereal and cleansers. The comic books, which were printed in bright colors to attract the attention of potential customers, proved so popular that some publishers decided to produce comic books that would come out on a monthly basis and would sell for a dime each. Though comic strips had been reproduced in publications prior to this time, the Famous Funnies comic book, which was started in 1934, marked the first occasion that a serialized book of comics was attempted. Early comic books reprinted already existing comic strips and comics based on known characters; however, publishers soon began introducing original characters developed specially for comic books. Superman was introduced in Action Comics in 1938, and Batman was introduced a year later. The tremendous success of these superhero comic books led to the development of numerous comic books on a variety of topics, though superhero comic books 11 predominated. Astonishingly, by 1945 approximately 160 different comic books were being published in the United States each month, and 90 percent of U.S children were said to read comic books on a regular basis. (Source: Preparation Course for the Toefl Test) Question 1: What best series as the ttle for the reading passage passage? A. The history of comic books B. comic books’ publication C. Batman D. Superhero comics. Question 2: The word “premium” is closest in meaning to ______. A. introduction B. preparation C. publication D. importance Question 3: The word “potential” is closest in meaning to ______. A. continuing B. developing C. able D. possible Question 4: The word “which” in paragraph 1 refers to_____. A. comic trips B. the Famous Funnies C. serialized book of comics D. publications Question 5: According to paragraph 2, Batman was introduced in ______. A. 1938 B. 1939 C. 1940 D. 1940 Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. The modern comic book came about in the early 1930s in the United States. B. The comic books were printed in bright colors. C. Superman was introduced in Action Comics in 1938. D. The Famous Funnies comic book was the first comic strips. Question 7: Which of the following was published after Action Comics? A. the Famous Funnies B. Superman C. Superhero D. Batman PASSAGE 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50 Life on Earth is in the throes of a new wave of mass extinction, unlike anything since the demise of the dinosaurs. In the last 500 years, 844 species are known to have died out, and up to 16,000 others are now known to be threatened. Conservationists argue that humans have an ethical obligation to protect other species. Diversity and natural beauty are highly prized by mankind, and that biodiversity is a vital resource: we rely on ecosystems to provide food, oxygen and natural resources, recycle waste and fertilize soil for agriculture. The total value of services provided to man by nature has been estimated at $33 trillion annually. Plants and animals are also an essential source of new foods and medicines worldwide. Preserving species could help protect us from disease. Natural disasters and processes were behind the five major mass extinctions in geological history, but the current “sixth extinction” is being caused by the success of one species- humans. The six billion (and counting) people crowding the Earth, are driving out biodiversity in a variety of ways. Humans began to destroy ecosystems a major way about 10,000 years ago with the development of agriculture. 12 But within the last 100,000 years, the hunting and burning practices of people, along with climate change, drove many large mammals to extinction. However, the most common reason for extinction is habitat loss. Ecosystems from wetlands to prairies and rain forests to coral reefs are being cleared or degraded for crops, cattle, roads and development. Even fragmenting habitats with roads or dams can make them more vulnerable. (Source: Succeed in Cambridge CAE 10 Practice Tests) Question 1: Which of the following best serves as title for the passage? A. Our endangered wildlife B. Life on Earth C. Biodiversity D. Ecosystem Question 2: The word “died out” in paragrpah 1 is closest in meaning to ______. A. destroyed B. used up C. been extinct D. polluted Question 3: The word “Preserving” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______. A. Destroying B. Conserving C. Continuing D. Keeping Question 4: According to the passage, the “sixth extinction” is being caused by ______. A. roads and dams B. climate change C. development D. human beings Question 5: According to the reading passage, what is the main reason for extinction? A. burning B. climate change C. habitat loss D. hunting Question 6: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _____. A. habitats B. rainforests C. roads or dams D. mammals Question 7: The following are true EXCEPT ______. A. Within the last 100,000 years, the hunting and burning practices of people, along with climate change, drove many large mammals to extinction B. In the last 500 years, 844 species are known to have died out C. In the last 500 years, up to 16,000 species are now known to be threatened D. Humans began to destroy ecosystems a major way about 100,000 years ago with the development of agriculture Question 8: Why do plants and animals play an essential part in our life? A. Because they provide us dinosaurs. B. Because they provide us food and medicine. C. Because they are threatened. D. Because they are natural beauty. PASAGE 4: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it’s what’s inside that’s important but 13 sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing. When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you’re likely to meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are likely to perform. Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there’s no need to abandon your individual taste completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else’s idea of what looks good, you may end up feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself. Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when you really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but do take care not to go too far all at once. Reappraising your image isn’t selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will benefit. You’ll look better and you’ll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only need to read Professor Albert Mehrabian’s book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak, and only seven percent on what we actually say.(Adapter from “Expert First” by Jan Bell and Roger Gower) Question 1. Which could be the best title for the passage? A. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits B. Making Judgements about People’s Appearance C. Making Your Image Work for You D. Creating a Professional Image Question 2. According to paragraph 1, people can get a negatie reacton from others by_________. A. talking about other people’s behaviours B. sending out right signals C. wearing inappropriate clothes D. expressing too strong emotions Question 3. The word “outfits” in paragraph 2 mostly means_________. A. sets of clothes B. types of signals C. types of gestures D. sets of equipment Question 4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be considered when choosing clothes? A. Places you spend time in B. Other people’s views on beauty C. Kinds of tasks you perform D. People you meet Question 5. The word “others” in paragraph 3 refers to_________. A. neutral tones B. taste boundaries C. colours D. means Question 6. The word “Reappraising” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to_________. 14 A. reapplying B. reconsidering C. reminding D. recalling Question 7. According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other depends mainly on_________. A. how we speak B. what we read C. what we actually say D. how we look and behave PASSAGE 5: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions that follow. Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year. Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s. Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare. Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Causes of food spoilage. B. Commercial production of ice. C. Population movements in the nineteenth century. D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet. Question 2: The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to ________ . 15 A. a particular time of year B. a kind of weather C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring Question 3: During the 1860’s, canned food products were _________ . A. unavailable in rural areas B. available in limited quantities C. shipped in refrigerator cars D. a staple part of the American diet. Question 4: The word” them” in line 12 refers to _________ . A. refrigerator cars B. growers C. perishables D. distances Question 5: The word” fixture” in line 16 is closest in meaning to _________ . A. commonplace object B. substance C. luxury item D. mechanical device Question 6: The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice _________ . A. increased in cost B. occurred only in the summer C. decreased in number D. were on an irregular schedule Question 7: The word “ Nevertheless” in line 19 is closest meaning to _________ . A. occasionally B. however C. although D. therefore Question 8: Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Drying B. Chemical additives C. Canning D. Cold storage KEYS Passage 1 Passage 2 Passage 3 Passage 4 Passage 5 1.D 1.A 1.A 1.C 1.D 2.B 2.D 2.C 2.C 2.A 3.D 3.D 3.B 3.A 3.B 4.B 4.B 4.D 4.B 4.C 5.D 5.B 5.C 5.C 5.A 6.D 6.D 6.B 6.C 7.D 7.D 7.D 7.B 8.B 8.B 2.5. Sample test for assessment of experimental results. 15 MINUTE TEST Full name:……………………. ............... Class 12…………….. PASSAGE 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Naming customs are different around the world. In most cultures, For example, not everyone has the same number of names. In some countries, such as Indonesia, many people have just one name. Your given name is the name you receive when you are born. Your family name is the name you share with other people in your family. In the United States, the family name is often called the last name, and the given name is often called the first name. However, the 16 order of the two names is not the same everywhere. For example, in many Asian countries, the family name is first and the given name is second. When two people from different cultures meet, sometimes they use the incorrect name. This can cause embarrassment. Family names can show something about a family’s early history. The origin of many English family names is a place, like London, or a job, such as Farmer or Shoesmaker. A long time ago, these families probably worked as farmers or shoemakers. Swedish and Danish family names often mean son of....For example, Johnsson means son of Johan. In South Korea, there are only about 250 family names. These names go back hundreds of years to very old clans. About half of all Koreans have one of the three most common family names- Kim, Park, or Lee. This can cause a problem, because Koreans believe you should not marry a person with the same last name. This means Korean must be careful whom they fall in love with! There is generally no choice about a family name, but there is much more choice about names. Parents choose their child’s name for many different reasons. They may select a name that sounds beautiful or means something special. These names may have meanings like peaceful or happiness. In some cultures, there may be a connection between children’s names and when or how they were born. For example, a Yorube child in Nigeria might have a name like Sunday or Born on a sunny day. In some countries, parents may pay money to a professional baby namer to help them find a good name. They want to find a name that will be lucky for their child. (Source: Jessica William, Making connection 1, 2nd Ed, Cambridge, 2014) Question 1: Which best serves as the title for the reading passage? A. Beautiful names C. Naming for fun B. Naming Customs D. Naming for a reason Question 2: What is NOT mentioned as a reason for parents to choose names for their child? A. a name that brings strength to their child B. a name that means something special C. a name that shows how a child is born D. a name that will be lucky for their child Question 3: It is stated in paragraph 1 that when two people from different cultures meet, A. They do not know how to say their names. B. They may misuse each other’s names. C. They very often misaddress each other. D. They will misunderstand each other. Question 4: The word “clans” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to A. A large number of royal familes C. upper class familes B. Lower class familes D. large groups of familes Question 5: The word “ they” in paragraph 3 refers to................ 17 A. Name B. meanings C.children D. parents PASSAGE 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions PANDEMIC DISEASES Diseases are a natural part of life on earth. If there were no diseases, the population would grow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources, so in a way, diseases are natural ways of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics. Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a new thing in common. First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70 -80% of all people who get the Marburg virus died from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to spread a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread. While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in 2002, and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic. Question 1: This passage is mainly about________. A. How to prevent pandemic diseases. B. Pandemic diseases. C. Pandemic diseases throughout history. D. Why pandemics happen. Question 2: Based on the information in the passage the term “pandemics” can be explained as ______. A. Diseases with no cure. B. A deadly kind of flu. C. Diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people. D. New disease like SARS or the Marburg virus. Question 3: According to the passage, what causes pandemics? A. Changes in a disease that body cannot fight B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of disease. C. Population growth that the world cannot support. 18 D. The failure to make new medicines. Question 4: According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT that ______ A. it involved a new kind of flu virus B. it killed over 25 million people C. it was the last pandemic in history D. it took a little over a week to kill its victims Question 5: The word “it” in the passage refers to _______ A. disease B. flu virus C. pandemics D. bodies Question 6: According to paragraph 3, why hasn’t Marburg iirus become a pandemic? A. It is not a deadly disease. B. It does not spread from person to person easily. C. Doctors have prevented it from becoming a pandemic. D. It kills people too quickly. Question 7: The author mentions SARS in order to ________. A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease. B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic. C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic . D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon. KEYS Passage 1 1.B 2.A 3.B 4.D 5.C Passage 2 1.B 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.B 6.D 7.B 2.6. EFFECTS OF THE STUDY: Over a year of teaching according to the previously given rules, I found that my students’ skill of doing the reading comprehension has improved remarkably. This study has been used in the school year 2018 – 2019 at classes 12A3, 12A4, 12A5, and the result is as follows: Before the study: Students’ number of doing tasks Class Not very well % well % 12A3 14/38 36.8 24/38 63.2 12A4 20/30 66.7 10/30 33,3 12A5 27/40 67.5 13/40 32.5 After the study: Students’ number of doing tasks Not very well % well % 12A3 5/38 22.2 33/38 77.8 12A4 8/30 14 22/43 86 12A5 10/40 23.8 30/40 76.2 After the study, my students are not only confident to do the type of Reading Comprehension test but also able to get high mark in it. They are no Class 19