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Tài liệu đề tiếng anh 9 năm học 2013 2014

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UBND HUYÊÊN HÒA BÌNH PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO (Đề gồm 5 trang) KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG HUYÊÊN NĂM HỌC 2013 -2014 MÔN : TIẾNG ANH LỚP : 9 Thời gian : 150 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) ĐỀ Part 1: LISTENING (4ps) I. Listen to these conversations and mark (√) the correct answer to the man's question. The first one is done for you as an example. (2ps) What’s Sarah’s favorite sport? A B C D√ B C D C D 1. When is John’s party? A 2. What time does the concert begin? A B 3. How much did Emma’s new coat cost? £20 £25 £30 £35 A B C D C D 4. What’s Jimmy’s favorite animal? A B II. Listen to the conversation and choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to answer each question. (2ps) 1. Where does William Anthony Barker come from? A. New Zealand B. England C. Australia D. The USA 2. What does he do? 1 A. worker B. musician 3. What is he doing in London? A. He is on business C. He is working there 4. What’s his telephone number? A. 020 7545 3555 C. 020 7535 3555 C. mechanic D. doctor B. He is on holiday D. He is meeting his relatives B. 020 7535 3355 D. 020 7545 3355 Part 2: LANGUAGE FOCUS (6ps) I. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentence. (2ps) 1. My brother prefers playing soccer ……………… listening to music. A. as B. so C. than D. to 2. No cars are …………………. in the city center. A. allowed B. allowing C. allows D. to allow 3. I………………..her since we were children. A. know B. knew C. did know D. have known 4. The exercises are………………difficult for us to do. A. from B. more C. too D. to 5. We look forward………………you soon. A. see B. seeing C. to see D. to seeing 6. How much time do you spend……………TV everyday? A. on watching B. watching C. to watch D. watch 7. Tom can speak two languages. One is English. ........................ is French. A. Other B. Another C. The other D. Others 8. In the summer my brother always wears shirts with short ………… A. hands B. arms C. sleeves D. shoulders 9. The children kept ………… about the clowns that they liked most of all. A. talking B. talked C. to talk D. talk 10. I’ll give her the message as soon as she …….. tomorrow. A. comes back B. will come C. is coming D. has come II. Read and choose the best answer to complete the passage. (2ps) An important part of world history is the story of communication. In prehistoric times, (1) ________ example, people did not have books. They did not (2) ________much about geography. People were (3) ________. They knew only about themselves and their (4) ________ (the land around their homes). Their knowledge of geographical things like mountains and rivers was limited. They did not travel very far. Sometimes they knew about nearby people and (5) ________ with them. They sent (6) ________in simple ways. Early signals for communication included smoke from fires and the sounds of drums. 2 Then people formed towns, and then cities, as safe places to live. Soon they began to (7) ________other ways to communicate, to spread information. People began to buy and sell things to (8) _________. Because of their business, they developed writing systems to keep records and to send messages. Life was changing for many people. Business caused changes, and so (9) _________ the invention of the printing press. Many more people learned to read then. Suddenly communication and knowledge improved (10) ________. People sent letters and news by horse and carriage. Later the mail went by train and then by airplane. World communication was now a possibility. 1. A. for 2. A. get 3. A. limited 4. A. friends 5. A. communicate 6. A. letters 7. A. hold 8. A. them 9. A. as 10. A. greatly B. an B. see B. limit B. houses B. communicated B. messages B. buy B. each other B. do B. bad C. at C. know C. limiting C. homes C. community C. gifts C. develop C. one another C. was C. great D. in D. have D. be limited D. environment D. communicating D. words D. help D. others D. did D. badly III. Rewrite the following sentences without changing meaning. (2ps) 1. The question is so difficult that we can’t answer it. -> It’s ……………………………………………………………………… 2. The meeting lasted two hours. -> It was …………………………………………………………………… 3. I like listening to music more than watching television. -> I prefer …………………………………………………………………. 4. No one could do these exercises correctly. -> These ........................................................................................................ 5. We started living here fifteen years ago. -> We have ................................................................................................... 6. My friends are good soccer players. -> My friends play......................................................................................... 7. I can’t write to you because I don’t know your address. -> If……………………………………………………………………….… 8. The last time we met our teacher was five years ago. -> It’s.............................................................................................................. 9. No one in the class is better than her. -> She is ......................................................................................................... 10. We spent two hours doing the homework. -> It took......................................................................................................... 3 Part 3: READING (5ps) I. Read and fill in the gaps to complete the letter. (2ps) Dear Maria, At last! We finished all our exams yesterday. The last one was History. It was horrible. I think (1) __________ is really difficult because I can't (2) __________ all the facts and the (3) __________. I did seven (4) __________. The worst were Science and History. I found (5) __________ very difficult. I always (6) __________ most of the things we've learned. The best subject this year was Geography, (7) __________ we only had it twice a week. We're (8) __________ to Wales in the middle of August to see my granddad. (9) __________ you like to come with us? Mum says it's OK. Please write and tell me about your year at school. What was it (10) __________? Were your exams easy? Bye for now. Peter. II. Reading tasks. (3ps) 1.Task 1: Read the passage, then choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence. (1p) After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death, he created a fund to be used for awarding frizzes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to mankind. Originally there were five awards: literature, physics, chemistry, medicine and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty – seven years after the first award ceremony. Nobel’s original legacy of nine million dollar was invested, and the interest on this sum is used for the awards which vary from 30,000 dollars to 125,000 dollars. Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel’s death, the awards (gold medal, illuminated diploma and money) are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges’ decisions. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes. No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War II. Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare: others have shared their prizes. 1. When did the first award ceremony take place? A. 1895 B. 1901 C. 1962 2. Why was the Nobel prize established? A. to recognize worthwhile contributions to humanity. B. to resolve political differences. C. to honor the inventor of dynamite. D. 1968 4 D. to spend money. 3. In which field have Americans received the most awards? A. literature B. peace C. economics D. science 4. Which of the following statements is not true? A. Awards vary in monetary. B. Ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel’s invention. C. Politics can play an important role in selecting the winners. D. A few individuals have won two awards. 2. Task 2: Read the passage, then answer the questions below. (2p) Elizabeth Blackwell was born in England in 1821 and emigrated to New York City when she was ten years old. One day she decided that she wanted to become a doctor that was nearly impossible for a woman in the middle of the nineteenth century. After writing many letters seeking admission to medical schools, she was finally accepted by a doctor in Philadelphia. So determined was she that she taught school and gave music lessons to earn money for her tuition. In 1849, after graduation from medical school, she decided to further her education in Paris. She wanted to be a surgeon, but a serious eye infection forced her to abandon the idea. Upon returning to the United States, she found it difficult to start her own practice because she was a woman. By 1857 Elizabeth and her sister, also a doctor, along with another female doctor, managed to open a new hospital, the first for women and children. Besides being the first female physician in the United States and founding her own hospital, she also established the first medical school for women. *Questions: 1. Why did Elizabeth Blackwell have to abandon her dream of becoming a surgeon? 2. How old was Elizabeth Blackwell when she graduated from medical school? 3. Did Elizabeth Blackwell overcome serious obstacles to become the first woman doctor in the United states? 4. Who founded the first hospital for women and children? Part 4: WRITING (3ps) Write a paragraph from 120 to 150 words: Most of the students use mobile phone. Write a paragraph about the advantages and disadvantages of using mobile phone of students -----THE END----- 5 UBND HUYÊÊN HÒA BÌNH PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO (Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 2 trang) KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG HUYÊÊN NĂM HỌC 2013 -2014 MÔN : TIẾNG ANH LỚP : 9 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Part 1: LISTENING (4ps) I. (2 ps). Each correct answer gets 0,5 point. 1. D 2. C 3. B II. (2ps). Each correct answer gets 0,5 point. 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 4. C Part 2: LANGUAGE FOCUS (6ps) I. (2ps). Each correct answer gets 0,2 point. 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. A II. (2ps). Each correct answer gets 0,2 point. 1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. D 10. A III. (2ps). Each correct answer gets 0,2 point. 1. It’s such a difficult question that we can’t answer it. 2. It was a two-hour meeting. 3. I prefer listening to music to watching television. 4. These exercises couldn’t be done correctly. 5. We have lived here for fifteen years 6. My friends play soccer well. 7. If I knew your address, I could write to you. 8. It’s five years since we last met our teacher. 9. She is the best (student) in her class. 10. It took us two hours to do the homework. Part 3: READING (5ps) I. (2ps). Each correct answer gets 0,2 point. 1. History 2. remember 3. dates 5. them 6. forget 7. but 9. Would 10. like II. Reading tasks (3ps). 1.(1p). Task 1: Each correct answer gets 0,25 point. 1. B 2. A 3. C 2.(2ps). Task 2: Each correct answer gets 0,5 point. 4. subjects 8. going 4. B 6 1. Because a serious eye infection forced her to abandon dream of becoming a surgeon. 2. She was 28. 3. Yes, she did. 4. She and several other women/(she and her sister along with another female doctor) founded the first hospital for women and children. Part 4: Writing Điểm 2 -> 3 Nội dung, mức độ cần đạt Bố cục rõ; diễn đạt mạch lạc, lô gíc; sử dụng đúng nghữ pháp, từ vựng; nội dung thể hiện được những tiện ích và tác động tiêu cực của điện thoại; đảm bảo dung lượng qui định. 1 -> dưới 2 Cũng thể hiện được các nội dung như nêu trên, nhưng chỉ đạt ở mức độ khá. Có mắc một số sai sót nhỏ không cơ bản trong sử dụng câu, từ. 0 -> dưới 1 Bài viết có thể hiện được một vài ý về tiện ích và tác động tiêu cực của điện thoại, nhưng sơ sài, dung lượng không đảm bảo. -----THE END----- 7 UBND HUYÊÊN HÒA BÌNH PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG HUYÊÊN NĂM HỌC 2013 -2014 MÔN : TIẾNG ANH 9, PHẦN THI NÓI Thời gian : 03 phút/ thí sinh (Thời gian chuẩn bị đề tài: 05 phút) Topic 1: Talk about your close friend and tell why you like her or him. (Note: You have 5 minutes to prepare and 3 minutes to talk about the topic) UBND HUYÊÊN HÒA BÌNH PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG HUYÊÊN NĂM HỌC 2013 -2014 MÔN : TIẾNG ANH 9, PHẦN THI NÓI Thời gian : 03 phút/ thí sinh (Thời gian chuẩn bị đề tài: 05 phút) Topic 2: Where do you prefer to live, city or the countryside? Why? (Note: You have 5 minutes to prepare and 3 minutes to talk about the topic) UBND HUYÊÊN HÒA BÌNH PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG HUYÊÊN NĂM HỌC 2013 -2014 MÔN : TIẾNG ANH 9, PHẦN THI NÓI Thời gian : 03 phút/ thí sinh (Thời gian chuẩn bị đề tài: 05 phút) Topic 3: Talk about activities you would do during the visit from a pen pal. (Note: You have 5 minutes to prepare and 3 minutes to talk about the topic) 8 UBND HUYÊÊN HÒA BÌNH PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG HUYÊÊN NĂM HỌC 2013 -2014 MÔN : TIẾNG ANH 9, PHẦN THI NÓI Thời gian : 03 phút/ thí sinh (Thời gian chuẩn bị đề tài: 05 phút) Topic 4: Shoud students in secondary school wear uniform? Talk about it (Note: You have 5 minutes to prepare and 3 minutes to talk about the topic) UBND HUYÊÊN HÒA BÌNH PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÒNG HUYÊÊN NĂM HỌC 2013 -2014 MÔN : TIẾNG ANH 9, PHẦN THI NÓI Thời gian : 03 phút/ thí sinh (Thời gian chuẩn bị đề tài: 05 phút) Topic 5: Name some TV programs that you often watch. Which programs do you like best? Talk about it. (Note: You have 5 minutes to prepare and 3 minutes to talk about the topic) 9 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI NÓI Điểm 1.5 -> 2 1 -> dưới 1.5 0 -> dưới 1 Nội dung, kỷ năng cần đạt - Thể hiện tốt nội dung của chủ đề, sắp xếp bố cục rõ , các ý được trình bày theo trình tự, lô gíc; - Phát âm chuẩn, đúng ngữ pháp, ngữ điệu, trình bày lưu loát, tác phong nhanh nhẹn, tự tin; - Thể hiện hết nội dung nhưng phải đảm bảo thời lượng qui định. - Thể hiện được nội dung của chủ đề, sắp xếp bố cục rõ , trình bày dược các ý cơ bản hợp lý; - Phát âm đúng, đảm bảo ngữ pháp, từ vựng, trình bày chưa thật lưu loát, mạnh dạn tự tin; - Đảm bảo thời lượng qui định. - Nêu được một số ý của nội dung chủ đề; - Còn ngập ngừng, lúng túng trong trình bày, phất âm chưa chuẩn, sử dụng từ vựng, ngữ pháp chưa đảm bảo; - Sử dụng thời lương qui định chưa hiệu quả. 10 HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE ------------------ Phần thi nghe có 2 nội dung (trong đề thi) - Tổng thời lượng nghe đĩa là 7 phút 04 giây. - Học sinh được nghe lần lượt từng nội dung, mỗi nội dung được nghe 2 lượt. Giữa hai nội dung có nhạc hiệu khoảng 30 giây. - Trước khi cho học sinh nghe đĩa, giám thi thông báo cho học sinh và dành khoảng 5-7 phút cho các em chuẩn bị, đọc tìm hiểu nội dung phần nghe. 11
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