SỞ GD&ĐT THANH HOA
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KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI 11-THPT
NĂM HỌC 2016 - 2017
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian: 180 phút ( không kể thời gian phát đề)
ĐỀ GIỚI THIỆU
Name:
PART A: LISTENING (15pts)
Question I. Question I. A young woman talks about recently discovering that she has a halfsister. Listen and complete the passage. (5 pts)
She thinks she’s lucky, she has some family in Germany, some family in France, in Britain
and in (1. ______) so she can visit them and (2.TH ______) some languages. Her family is quite big.
She has two sisters, the older one is (3. ______). A year ago she discovered that she has a half-sister
living in Bologna, in Italy. She has just met her (4. ______). She’ll take time to get to know her halfsister. But it is quite complicated because it’s a bit overwhelmed and (5. ______) sometimes.
Question II. Listen to the dialogue about the Boston Marathon and decide whether the statements
are true (T) or false (F). (5 pts)
NB6. It began in 1897.
NB7. John McDermott clocked 2 hours 15 minutes and 10 seconds.
NB8. Women were officially allowed to participate in the races in 1957.
NB9. In 1984, 34 countries took part in the marathon.
TH10. According to the race's rules, runners have to pass through the centre of Boston.
Question III. Listen again and answer the following questions. (5 pts)
NB11. Where did John McDermott come from?
A. New York.
B. London
C. New Zealand
D. Washington D.C
NB12. When did Kuscsik become the first official female champion?
A,. in 1792
B. in 1972.
C. in 1902
D. in 1729
NB13. How many women started and finished the race in 1972?
A. 8
B. 18
C. 80
D. 9
NB14. How many runners joined the Boston Marathon in 1984?
A. 6146
B. 6160
C. 6416
NB15. How often is the Boston Marathon held in the USA?
A. Twice a year
B. Once a year C. Every two year
D. 6164
D. Every three year
PART B: PHONETICS (5pts)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the
same line. ( 2points)
NB1. A. comfort
B. hobby
C. knowledge
D. popular
NB2. A. breath
B. breathe
C. thank
D. threat
Question II. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently from that of the other words.
(3points)
NB3. A. suggest
B. relate
C. empty
D. effect
NB4. A. television B. education
C. entertainment D. information
NB5. A.agency
B. shortcoming
C.confident
D.employment
PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)
Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)
TH1. The girl _____ is my neighbor.
A. talks to the lady over there.
B. is talking to the lady over there
C. was talking to the lady over there
D. talking to the lady over there
NB2.___________the phone rang later that night did Tom remember the appoinment.
A. No sooner
B. Only
C. Not until
D. Just before
TH3. I never read ________ newspapers during the week, but I buy ______Observer every Sunday
and I read it in ________bed.
A. the / the / no article
B. the / a / the
C. no article / the / no article
D. a / a / the
TH4. You’d better stop spending money, _________ you’ll end up in debt.
A. unless
B. otherwise
C. in case
D. if not
TH5. People who are easily ________ by rumors can never be good friends.
A. influenced B. attracted
C. purchased
D. occurred
NB6. Helen asked me __________the film called “Star Wars”.
A. if I had seen
B. have I seen
C. have you seen
D. if had I seen
NB7. When the alarm went off, Mick just turned ………..…. and went back to sleep.
A. down
B. over
C. up
D. out
TH8. ______before, his first performance for the amateur dramatic group was a success.
A. Though having never acted
B. Despite he had never acted
C. As he had never acted
D. In spite of his never having acted
TH9. A _______ is a book used in school containing text and questions and sometimes
having spaces for a student to write answers in.
A. notebook
B. workbook
C. exercise book
D. reference book
TH10. Although most car can travel much faster, the ...............speed limit in the UK is
70 mph (110 kph).
A. maximum
B. greatest
C. highest
D. biggest
Question II . Question II. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from)). Recognise the
mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)
1
5
10
15
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping to the
invention of a machine that would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring
and repetitive, factory work could be manage by robots, why not boring and repetitive
household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were
amateur inventors. And they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is
actually very complex. It has never been one job, it has always got many. A factory robot
carries on one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run
the whole factory. A housework robot, on the other hand, has to do several different types
of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope with all the different shapes and
positions
of
rooms,
furniture,
ornaments,
cats
and
dogs..
However, there have been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help
the robot location objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to produce the
hardware. All that is missing is the software – the programs that will operate the
machine.
Question III. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (7 pts)(TH)
1 - 2. It is time that man ______ (teach) a lesson. He ______ (make) nothing but trouble for months.
3. There were some people______ (row) on the river.
4. Don’t be surprised when you see how thin Olaf is. He ______ (be) extremely ill.
5. ______ (write) the letter, he posted it to Lan.
6 -7. A: “Andrew told me he______ (not invite) to this party and now he has gone away for the
weekend already.”
B: “Oh, dear! I’m sure that his invitation ______ (get) lost in the post.”
Question IV. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. (5 pts)
TH21. The cost of ______to the show is quite reasonnable.
ADMIT
TH22. Alex usually______ Diana at the piano when she sings.
COMPANY
TH23. Jim was a very______pupil and learned easily
GIFT
th
TH24. All ______must be received before July 20 1994
APPLY
TH25. Going swimming every day would have very______ effects.
BENEFIT
TH26. I’d like to make a______ about this radio I bought here.
COMPLAIN
TH27. The car in front braked______ and I ran into it.
EXPECT
TH28. She found a good job working in an______agency.
ADVERTISEMENT
PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space.
(10 pts)
A beauty contest, or beauty pageant, is a competition between people, (1) _______ largely on
the beauty of their physical appearance. The modern beauty pageant can (2) _______ its origin to the
Miss America pageant, first held in Atlantic City, New Jersey, in 1921, under the title ‘Inter-City
Beauty' contest. The following year the title was (3) _______ as Miss America. Other contests
include the yearly Miss World competition and Miss Universe, which are the two largest and most
famous 4) _______ beauty contests. Women from around the world (5) _______ in the competition
for these titles. To be selected as Miss World or Miss Universe, a contestant must be (6) _______ or
single. If a Miss WorId fails to live up to people's expectations, she may (7) _______ disqualified.
The organizers of the major beauty contests represent their contests (8) _______ being events of
world importance. (9) _______ many other people consider beauty contests to be (10) _______
entertainment event of no great importance.
TH1. A. set
B. based
C. regarded
D. used
TH2. A. trace
B. explain
C. pass
D. share
TH3. A. renewed
B. removed
C. renamed
D. retained
TH4. A. nation
B. national
C. internationale
D. international
NB5. A. interest
B. participate
C. excite
D. involve
TH6. A. celibate
B. faithful
C. impressive
D. attractive
NB7. A. are
B. is
C. be
D. being
TH8. A. of
B. to
C. for
D. as
TH9. A. Besides
B. However
C. Therefore
D. Furthermore
TH10. A. mass
B. popular
C. agreeable
D. remarkable.
Question II. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word. (10 pts)
As swimming became a popular recreation in England during the 1860s and 1870s, several
(1) TH______ sports developed, roughly patterned after land sports. (2)TH ______ them were water
football (or soccer), water rugby, water handball, and water polo, in which players rode on floating
barrels, painted to look (3)TH ______ horses, and struck the ball with a stick.
Water rugby became most popular of these sports, but somehow the water polo name became
attached to it, and it's been attached (4) TH______ since.
As played in England, the object of the sport was for a player to touch the ball, with both
(5)TH ______, at the goal end of the pool. The goaltender stood on the pool deck, ready to dive on
any opponent who was about to score.
Water polo quickly became a very rough sport, filled (6) TH______ underwater fights away
from the ball, and it wasn't unusual for players to pass out for lack of air.
In 1877, the sport was tamed in Scotland by the addiction of goalposts. The Scots also
replaced (7)TH ______ original small, hard rubber ball with a soccer ball and adopted (8)
TH______ that prohibited taking the ball under the surface or, "tackling" a player unless he had the
ball.
The Scottish game, which emphasized swimming speed, passing, and (9) TH______ work,
spread to England during the early 1880s, to Hungary in 1889, to Austria and Germany in 1894, to
France in 1895, and (10)NB ______ Belgium in 1900.
Water polo was the first team sport added to the Olympic program, in 1900.
Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts)
Millions of people are using mobile phones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, mobile phones are very popular with young people. They
find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that
they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some
health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer
health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about
this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say
that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies
have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of changes in
the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a
traveling businessman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He could not
remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk
on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, everyday of his working week, for a couple of years.
His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use but his employer's doctor did not agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech
machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies
agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the
discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use
your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really
need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future,
mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise
not to use your mobile phone so often.
VD1. According to the passage, mobile phones are popular with young people because ________.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications
B. they make them look more stylish
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they can not be replaced by regular phones
VD2. The changes possibly caused by mobile phones are mainly concerned with ________.
A. the mobility of the mind and body
B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain
D. the resident memory
TH3. The word "means" in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. meanings
B. expressions
C. method
D. transmission
TH4. The word "potentially" mostly means ________.
A. obviously
B. possibly
C. certainly
D. privately
TH5. "negative publicity" most likely means ________.
A. information on the lethal effects of mobile phones
B. widespread opinion about bad effects of mobile phones.
C. the negative public use of mobile phones
D. poor ideas about the effects of mobile phones
VD6. Doctors have tentatively concluded that mobile phones ________.
A. cause some mental malfunction
B. damage their user's emotions
C. change their users' temper
D. change their users' behaviors
TH7. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his mobile phone too often, ________
A. had a problem with his memory
B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family
D. suffered serious loss of mental ability
TH8. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ________
A. their radiant light
B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power
D. their invisible rays
TH9. According to the writer, people should ________.
A. only use mobile phones in certain cases
B. never use mobile phones in all cases
C. keep off mobile phones regularly
D. only use mobile phones in medical
emergencies.
VDC10. The most suitable title for the passage could be ________.
A. Mobile phones; a must of our time
C. The way mobile phones work
B. Technological innovations and their prices
D. The reasons why mobile phones are popular
PART E: WRITING (10 pts)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in
meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
VD1. We ought to leave the party now if we want to catch the last train.
=> If we don’t …………………………………………………………………
VD2. It’s been reported that the chancellor is very satisfied with his visit to Japan.
=> The chancellor … ……………………………………………………..
VD3. "Don't go near the dog, children", said the mother
=> The mother warned ………………………………………………………..
VD4. Nam is sorry now that he didn’t accept the job.
=> Nam now wishes that ………………………………………………………
VD5. I have never read such a romantic story before.
=>This is………………………………………………………………………
Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as
similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Do not
change the form of the given word. (5 pts)
VDC6. It has always been her ambition to write a successful novel.
=> She.............................................................a successful novel.
VDC7. Without tourism, this area wouldn't have much income
=> This area.............................................................its income.
VDC8. Mr John said that he didn't want to go out that evening.
=> Mr John said that.............................................................out that evening.
VD9. I haven't seen Henry since 2015.
=> The last...................................................................in 2015.
VDC10. They are not even allowed to wear earrings at that school.
=> That school..........................................................................wear earrings.
DREAMT
DEPENDS
RATHER
TIME
LET
Question III. Essay writing (10 pts): VDC
Vietnamese society has changed significantly in the past decades. However, many traditional values
and practices have been lost, which is a pity. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this
statement? In about 230 - 250 words, write an essay to support your opinion (10 points).
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