Đăng ký Đăng nhập

Tài liệu Mock tests bo de thi thu thpt tieng anh

.DOCX
107
468
145

Mô tả:

MOCK TESTS English 12 NAME: ____________________ School year: 2015 - 2016 1|Page MOCK TEST 1 SECTION A (8 points): Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 01 to 10. Early writing and Alphabets When people first began to write, they did not use an alphabet. Instead, they drew small pictures to (01) ______ the objects they were writing about. This was very slow because there was a different picture for (02) ______ word. The Ancient Egyptians had a (03) ______ of picture writing that was (04) ______ hieroglyphics. The meaning of this writing was forgotten for a very long time but in 1799 some scientists (05) ______ a stone near Alexandria, in Egypt. The stone had been there for (06) ______ a thousand years. It had both Greek and hieroglyphics on it and researchers were finally able to understand what the hieroglyphics meant. An alphabet is quite different (07) ______ picture writing. It (08) ______ of letters or symbols that represent a sound and each sound is just part of one word. The Phoenicians, (09) ______ lived about 3,000 years ago, developed the modern alphabets. It was later improved by the Roman’s and this alphabet is now used (10) ______ throughout the world Question 1: A. notice B. show C. appear D. mark Question 2: A. some B. all C. every D. any Question 3: A. practice B. manner C. plan D. system Question 4: A. known B. called C. described D. referred Question 5: A. discovered B. realized C. delivered D. invented Question 6: A. quite B. more C. over D. already Question 7: A. at B. from C. before D. between Question 8: A. consists B. includes C. contains D. involves Question 9: A. which B. whose C. what D. who Question 10: A. broadly B. widely C. deeply D. hugely Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 11: A. disappearance B. conversation C. contaminate D. government Question 12: A. eradicate B. technology C. incredible D. pessimist Question 13: A. conical B. sacrifice C. approval D. counterpart Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 14: One difference between mathematics and language is that mathematics is precise _________. A. language is not B. while language is not C. but language not D. while is not language Question 15: Seldom _________ far enough north to disturb South Pacific shipping lanes A. Antarctic icebergs will move B. will Antarctic icebergs move C. will move Antarctic icebergs D. move Antarctic icebergs will Question 16: _________ the United States consists of many different immigrant groups, many sociologists believe there is a distinct national character A. . Even though B. Despite C. Whether D. In spite of Question 17: The article analyzes the impact of the tax base _______ real estate prices and sales. A. in B. on C. at D. with Question 18: She _______ to the station every day but then she suddenly decided to walk instead. A. used to B. was used to C. had used to D. didn't use to Question 19: If I ______ following that other car too closely, I would have been able to stop in the time instead of running into it A. wasn’t B. weren’t C. hadn’t been D. would have been 2|Page Question 20: Our village had _______ money available for education that the schools had to close. A. so little B. such little C. so much D. such much Question 21: Fort Niagara was built by the French in 1762 on land ______ the Seneca Indians. A. they buy from B. bought from C. buying from D. was bought from Question 22: Experts ______ feel that they are related to the deep wishes and fears of the dreamer. A. study dreamsB. who dream study C. who study dreams D. whose dreams study Question 23: Art critics and historians alike claim that Van Gogh’s art ______ from that of his contemporaries A. is a considerable difference B. is considerably different C. the difference is considerable D. is considerably and differently Question 24: Most countries spend a large portion of their budgets _______ for their citizens A. education provided B. provide education C. to educational provides D. providing education Question 25: Renoir is one of the most popular French impressionist painters. His paintings _______ masterpieces all over the world A. have considered B. are considering C. considered D. are considered Question 26: Sheila Hammond, who was only twenty-three when she was elected as a Member of Parliament, said she owed her success all to the way she had been ________ by her mother, Margaret. A. brought up B. taken after C. looked for D. caught for Question 27: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They meet each other at a gallery but Ken is in a hurry. Ken: “I’ve got to go, Tom. So long” Tom: “So long, Ken. And _______.” A. be careful B. take care C. don’t hurry D. don’t take it seriously Question 28: We need _______ actions and interventions of the local authorities to prevent national parks from being destroyed by pollution A. excitedly B. approximately C. threateningly D. timely Question 29: Mike and Lane are neighbors. They are talking about Lane’s party. Mike: “Thank you for a lovely evening” Lane: “________” A. It depends on you B. Thank you very much indeed. C. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it D. You are welcome Question 30: We all seem to have a different opinion, so let’s Joey decide, ______? A. will we B. do we C. shall we D. are we Question 31: No one can decline the _______ of the Alaskan wildness A. breath-taking scene B. breath-taken view C. breath-to-take scene D. breath-taking view Question 32: A quick look would reveal that France has twice ____________ computers A. more television than B. as many television as C. as many as television D. many as television as Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 33: A. academic B. grade C. behave D. examination Question 34: A. humor B. honest C. hotel D. hurry Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 35: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), was established in 1946 A. set up B. found out C. run through D. put away Question 36: Paris is the ideal place to learn French; it’s a beautiful and hospitable city with Institutions for high quality linguistic teaching A. friendly B. natural C. affectionate D. noticeable Question 37: Species that have already lost habitat because of deforestation are given higher priority in the plan because of their greater risk of extinction 3|Page A. a thing that you do often and almost without thinking B. the place where a particular type of animal or plan is normally found C. a subject that student don’t understand D. a theme that everyone likes to discuss Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 38: The scholarship that Wilson received to study history at Cambridge presented an unique opportunity A. that B. history C. at Cambridge D. an Question 39: Amelia Earhart, the first woman to fly solo across the Atlantic, disappeared on June 1937 while attempting to fly around the world A. to fly B. the Atlantic C. on D. attempting Question 40: The closer it gets to December 21, the first day of winter, the short the days become. A. gets to B. first day C. short D. become Question 41: Alice in Wonderland, first published in 1865, has since being translated into thirty languages. A. published B. has C. being D. languages Question 42: Modern art is on display at the Guggenheim Museum, a building with an unusually design A. Modern art B. display C. a building D. unusually Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 52. A rather surprising geographical feature of Antarctica is that a huge freshwater, one of the world’s largest and deepest, lies hidden there under four kilometers of ice. Now known as Lake Vostok, this huge body of water is located under the ice block that comprises Antarctica. The lake is able to exist in its unfrozen state beneath this block of ice because its waters are warned by geothermal heat from the earth’s core. This thick glacier above Lake Vostok actually insulates it from frigid temperatures (the lowest ever recorded on Earth) on the surface. The lake was first discovered in the 1970s while a research team was conducting an aerial survey of the area. Radio waves from the survey equipment penetrated the ice and revealed a body of water of indeterminate size. It was not until much more recently that data collected by satellite made scientists aware of the tremendous size of the lake; satellite-borne radar detected an extremely flat region where the ice remains level because it is floating on the water of the lake. The discovery of such a huge fresh water lake trapped under Antarctica is of interest to the scientific community because of the potential that the lake contains ancient microbes that have survived for thousands upon thousands of years, unaffected by factors such as nuclear fallout and elevated ultraviolet light that have conducting research on the lake in such a harsh climate and in the problems associated with obtaining uncontaminated sampled from the lake without actually exposing the lake to contamination. Scientists are looking for possible ways to accomplish this Question 43: The purpose of the passage is to __________. A. explain how Lake Vostok was discovered B. provide satellite data concerning Antarctica C. discuss future plans for Lake Vostok D. present an unexpected aspect of Antarctica’s geography Question 44: The word “lies” in the first paragraph could be best be replaced by ______. A. sleeps B. sits C. tells falsehoods D. inclines Question 45: What is true of Lake Vostok? A. It is completely frozen B. It is not a saltwater lake C. It is beneath a thick slab of ice D. It is heated by the sun Question 46: Which of the following is closest in meaning to “ Frigid” in the first paragraph? A. extremely cold B. never changing C. quite harsh D. rarely recorded Question 47: All of the following are true about the 1970 survey of Antarctica EXCEPT that it________. A. was conducted by air B. made use of radio waves C. did not measure the exact size of the lake D. was controlled by a satellite Question 48: It can be interfered from the passage that ice would not be flat if _______. 4|Page A. there were no lake B. the lake were not so big C. Antarctica were not so cold D. radio waves were not used Question 49: The word “microbes” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by which of the following? A. pieces of dust B. trapped bubbles C. tiny organism D. rays of light Question 50: The passage mentions which of the following as a reason for the importance of Lake Vostok to scientists? A. It can be studied using radio waves B. It may contain uncontaminated microbes C. It may have elevated levels of ultraviolet light D. It has already been contaminated Question 51: The word “downside” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________. A. bottom level B. negative aspect C. underside D. buried section Question 52: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses________. A. further discoveries on the surface of Antarctica B. problems with satellite-borne radar equipment C. ways to study Lake Vostok without contaminating it D. the harsh climate of Antarctica Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your anser sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of t he following questions Question 53: There have been significant changes in women’s lives since the women’s liberation movement A. unimportant B. controlled C. political D. disagreeable Question 54: In 1989, a ban was given on all international trade in ivory A. a destruction B. an allowance C. an exploitation D. a prohibition Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your anwser sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64. Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world’s universities, came from very inauspicious and humble beginning. This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed at Plymouth. Included in the puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more than 100 graduates of England’s prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in the New Word were determined that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves had had, Because of this support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area called Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of t he present-day university. When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestowne, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today’s standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college. Henry Duster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors Question 55: The main idea of this passage is that_________. A. Harvard is one of the world’s most prestigious universities B. What is today a great university started out small C. John Harvard was key to the development of a great university D. Harvard University developed under the auspices of the General Court of Massachusetts Question 56: The passage indicates that Harvard is___________. A. One of the oldest universities in the world B. the oldest university in the world C. one of the oldest universities in America D. the oldest university in America 5|Page Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the Puritans who traveled to the Massachusetts colony were__________. A. Rather well educated B. rather rich C. rather supportive of the English government D. rather undemocratic Question 58: The pronoun “they” in the second paragraph refers to_____. A. Oxford and Cambridge universities B. university graduates C. sons D. educational opportunities Question 59: The “pounds” in the second paragraph are probably_______. A. Types of books B. college students C. units of money D. school campuses Question 60: The “ English cousin” in the second paragraph refers to a_______. A. City B. relative C. person D. court Question 61: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about John Harvard? A. What he died of B. Where he came from C. Where he was buried D. How much he bequeathed to Harvard Question 62: The word “fledgling” in the third paragraph could be best replaced by which of the following? A. Newborn B. flying C. winged D. established Question 63: The passage implies that_______. A. Henry Duster was an ineffective president B. Someone else really served as president of Harvard before Henry Dunster C. Henry Duster spent much of his time as president managing the Harvard faculty D. The position of president of Harvard was not merely an administrative position in the early ears Question 64: The word “somewhat” in the last paragraph could best be replaced by_______. A. Back and forth B. to and pro C. side by side D. more or less SECTION B (2 points): I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet Question 65: “I don’t know what you are talking about,” George said to me.  George said to me that_______________________________________ Question 66: They have just sold the last ticket for the performance to a student.  The last ticket_____________________________________________ Question 67: The school children sowed some seeds, but they forgot to water them so they didn’t grow.  If the school children_____________________________________ Question 68: Collecting stamps from foreign countries is one of Jane’s interests.  Jane is______________________________________________ Question 69: The Roman coins are now on display in the national Museum. A local farmer came across them in a field. The Roman coins which_______________________________________ II. Writing: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about an important choice you had to make in your life. Write your paragraph on your answer sheet. The following questions might be helpful to you: * When did you have to make this choice? * Was it a good choice? * How did you feel when you made this choice? ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 6|Page ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… MOCK TEST 2 SECTION A (8 points) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. managed B. threatened C. passed D. cleared Question 2: A. check B. cheap C. change D. chemistry Question 3: A. island B. especial C. escape D. isolate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 4: A. vacancy B. family C. consider D. furniture Question 5: A. prevention B. implement C. fertilize D. enterprise Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: There is no other place near here to get your motorbike _________ A. repaired B. repair C. to repair D. repairing Question 7: My aunt is a wildlife photographer. She _______ in London for many years. A. have been living B. will live C. has been living D. lives Question 8: Many _____ crafts such as weaving are now being revived. A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary Question 9: The government travel health advisory body recommends that pregnant women should “consider _________ travel” to areas where Zika outbreaks are currently reported. A. to avoid B. avoiding C. being avoided D. avoid Question 10: ____________ your help, I wouldn't have got the scholarship. A. Had not it been for B. Unless I had C. If I had had D. But for Question 11: The girls and flowers ___________ he painted were vivid. A. who B. that C. whose D. which Question 12: The kind-hearted woman _______ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor. A. wasted B. spent C. dedicated D. lived Question 13: Had we caught the earlier train, we__________ home by now. A. would have been B. would be C. are D. had been Question 14: Peter saw Linda in her new dress at the party. Choose the most suitable sentence to fill in the blank in the following exchange. Peter: “_______________” Landa: “Thank you for your compliment.” A. You’ve done very well B. This is a present for you C. I’m glad that you’re well again D. You look pretty in this dress Question 15: Toxic chemicals in the air and land, contaminated water and increased water temperatures have also driven many spices to the verge _________ extinction. A. for B. in C. to D. of Question 16: The richer you are, ______. 7|Page A. the more you may become worried B. the more worried you may become C. the more worry you may become D. you may become more worried Question 17: Travel can ______ the mind, and exchange visits give young people experience of a _______ way of life as well as a different language. A. broadly/different B. broaden/different C. broad/differently D. broaden/differ Question 18: It is imperative that the world __________ towards a solution to global warming before the weather patterns of the world are disrupted irreparably. A. work B. to work C. works D. is working Question 19: My mother bought ___________ from a shop on Ba Dinh street. A. a nice brown leather belt B. a brown nice leather belt C. a leather brown nice belt D. a nice leather brown belt Question 20: The movie is ______ Shakespeare’s Hamlet in a number of ways. A. like to B. alike with C. similar to D. same as Question 21: When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty______ paintings were destroyed, including two by Picasso. A. worthless B. valueless C. priceless D. meaningless Question 22: I could hear voices but I couldn’t ________what they were saying. A. turn up B. bring about C. make out D. try out Question 23: ____ I am aware, there were no problems during the first six months.. A. As far as B. So much as C. Much more than D. Except that Question 24: Lan and Mai was taking about their study at school. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange. Mai: “I thought your English skill was a lot better, Lan.” Lan: “__________” A. Thank you. I’d love to. B. Yes, please. Just a little. C. No, thanks. I think I can do it. D. You’ve got to be kidding. I thought it was bad Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase which is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word or phrase. Question 25: Early sailing ships had some disadvantages. A. losses B. damages C. discomforts D. drawbacks Question 26: These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence. A. publicly supported B. openly criticized C. strongly condemned D. publicly said Question 27: The Olympic Games impressed sports enthusiasts with its spirit: solidarity, cooperation for peace and development. A. had a favourable effect on B. interested C. amazed D. created strong relation from. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 28: Cancer is becoming one of the common diseases. A. ordinary B. universal C. rare D. usual Question 29: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on the air. A. extremely happy B. extremely light C. feeling extremely airy D. feeling extremely unhappy Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. 8|Page The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns (30)___ strongly affect the world. When the water is warm, the (31)___ of rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions decreases. Australia could (32)___ experience a drought in many parts. On (33)___ hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is preparing for (34)___ rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes the rainy season weaker and makes the area much drier. This happening is called El Nino and is used (35)___ weather forecasters to make long-range weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (36)___ unusually heavy rains to the southwestern part of the United States and make the central part of the country drier at the same time. According to research, weather forecasters (37)___ know about the coming weather with certainty. Now everything has become completely different. El Nino itself used to be (38)___. It would occur every two to seven years. But now, this weather pattern is becoming more frequent. We cannot say when and how often tornadoes or cyclones occur. Scientists are unsure of the reason for this (39)___ on a global scale either. (Source: vi4.ilovetranslation.com) Question 30: A. that B. when C. what D. whether Question 31: A. figure B. number C. deal D. amount Question 32: A. nevertheless B. ever C. however D. even Question 33: A. the other B. another C. other D. others Question 34: A. strict B. severe C. cruel D. angry Question 35: A. to B. by C. on D. at Question 36: A. fetch B. bring C. carry D. take Question 37: A. get used to B. are used to C. used to be D. used to Question 38: A. remarkable B. notable C. incredible D. predictable Question 39: A. transfer B. shift C. change D. transformation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 40: The number of women earning Master's Degrees have risen sharply in recent years. A B C D Question 41: Traditionally, Americans and Asians have had very different ideas about love and married. A B C D Question 42: It was in 2006 when she got married to a well-known movie star. A B C D Question 43: Chicago’s Sears Tower, now the taller building in the world, rises 1,522 feet from the A B C ground to the top of its antenna. D Question 44: Tom likes to gossip about other people, so he doesn’t like them to gossip about him. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. LEVEL OF VOCABULARY Most languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In English, at least three have been identified and described. Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a majority of the speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the level of formality. As such, these words and expression 9|Page are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal speed or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations. Almost all idiomatic expressions are colloquial language. Slang, refers to words and expressions understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the majority. Colloquial expressions and even slang may be found in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both colloquial usage and slang are more common in speech than writing. Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard speech, but other slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some cases, the majority never accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them in their collective memories. Every generation seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar objects and events. It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for the creation of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects and situations in the society; second, a diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third, association among the subgroups and the majority population. Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as abstract labels for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language will be aware that they are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of English will, during appropriate situations, select and use three types of expressions. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 45: The word "appropriate" in line 9 is closest in meaning to ________. A. old B. large C. important D. correct Question 46: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? A. Standard speech B. Different types of vocabulary C. Idiomatic phrases D. Dictionary usage Question 47:The word "obscurity" in line 13 could best be replaced by ________. A. tolerance B. influence C. qualification D. disappearance Question 48: How is “slang” defined by the author? A. Words and phrases accepted by the majority of formal usage. B. Words or phrases understood by the majority but not found in standard dictionaries. C. Words or phrases that are understood by a restricted group of speakers. D. Words or phrases understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as formal Question 49: Where in the passage does the author explain where colloquial language and slang are most commonly used? A. Line 21-23 B. Line 16-17 C. Line 10-11 D. Line 3-4 Question 50:Which of the following is true of standard usage? A. It is constantly changing B. It is limited to written language C. It is only understood by the upper classes D. It can be used in formal and informal settings Question 51: The word “them” in line 14 refers to ________. A. slang phrases B. words C. the majority D. memories Question 52:The author mentions all of the following as requirements for slang expressions to be created EXCEPT ________. A. new situations B. a number of linguists C. interaction among diverse groups D. new generation Question 53: It can be inferred from the passage that the author ________. A. does not approve of either slang or colloquial speech in any situation B. approves of slang and colloquial speech in appropriate situations C. approves of colloquial speech in some situations, but not slang 10 | P a g e D. does not approve of colloquial usage in writing Question 54: What does the author mean by the statement in line 5-7: "Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations."? A. Informal language contains colloquialisms, which are not found in more formal language. B. Familiar situations that are experienced by most people are called colloquialisms. C. Familiar words and phrases are found in both speech and writing in formal settings. D. Most of the speakers of a language can used both formal and informal speech in their appropriate situations. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. PANDEMIC DISEASES Diseases are a natural part of life on earth. If there were no diseases, the population would grow too quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources, so in a way, diseases are natural ways of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics. Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic diseases throughout history, all of them have a new thing in common. First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About 70 -80% of all people who get the Marburg virus died from the disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because most people die within three days of getting the disease. This means that the virus does not have enough time to spread a large number of people. The flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time to spread. While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in 2002, and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic. (Source: TOEFL Reading) Question 55: According to paragraph 1, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth? A. They prevent pandemics B. They help control the population C. They led the world grow quickly D. They kill too many people Question 56: Based on the information in the passage the term “pandemics” can be explained as ______ A. diseases with no cure B. a deadly kind of flu C. diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people D. new disease like SARS or the Marburg virus Question 57: According to the passage, what causes pandemics? A. Changes in a disease that body cannot fight B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of disease C. Population growth that the world cannot support D. The failure to make new medicines Question 58: According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT that ______ A. it involved a new kind of flu virus B. it killed over 25 million people 11 | P a g e C. it was the last pandemic in history D. it took a little over a week to kill its victims Question 59: The word “it” in the passage refers to _______ A. disease B. flu virus C. pandemics D. bodies Question 60: Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of all pandemic diseases? A. They spread from people to people very quickly B. It kills many people very quickly C. They do not kill people very quickly D. They kill all the victims Question 61: According to paragraph 3, why hasn’t Marburg virus become a pandemic? A. It is not a deadly disease B. It does not spread from person to person easily C. Doctors have prevented it from becoming a pandemic D. It kills people too quickly Question 62: The word ‘monitor’ in the passage is closest in meaning to _______ A. fight B. prevent C. watch D. avoid Question 63: The author mentions SARS in order to ________ A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon. Question 64: This passage is mainly about________ A. how to prevent pandemic diseases B. pandemic diseases C. pandemic diseases throughout history D. why pandemics happen SECTION B (2 points) I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet. Question 65: “Would you like to come to my party tomorrow?” Jean invited me.  Jean _______________________________________________________________. Question 66: You won’t lose weight if you don’t stop eating much.  Unless ___________________________________________________________________. Question 67: Since the invention of computer, people have saved a lot of time.  Since the computer was ________________________________________________. Question 68: Although he worked very hard, he didn’t manage to pass the exam.  Despite _____________________________________________________________. Question 69: The plane had hardly left the airport when the accident happened.  No sooner ___________________________________________________________. II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the women’s role in modern society. Write your paragraph on your answer sheet. The following prompts might be helpful to you. - Social activities. - Work. - Education. - Economic dependence. - Domestic chores ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 12 | P a g e ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… MOCK TEST 3 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: _____ that Marie was able to retire at the age of 50. A. So was her successful business, B. So successful was her business C. Her business was successful D. So successful her business was, Question 2: - “Can I carry these suitcases into the room for you?” - “______” A. You can’t, I think! B. No, you can’t. C. Yes, you can. D. Can you? That’s very kind. Question 3: My mother ______ me against staying late night after night to prepare for exams. A. recommended B. encouraged C. warned D. reprimanded Question 4: She must have been sleepless last night. Otherwise, her eyes _______ so bloody now. A. won’t look B. wouldn’t look C. wouldn’t have looked D. looked Question 5: I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my ______ A. . chip off the old block B. biscuit C. cup of tea D. piece of cake Question 6: After we each had been assigned an installment part of the project, we came back to our _______ section. A. respectively B. respectful C. irrespective D. respective Question 7: Before you start cooking, you should gather together all the necessary _________ A. elements B. factors C. ingredients D. substances Question 8: The last person _____ will have to turn off the lights A. left B. leaving C. have left D. to leave Question 9: This shirt is ______ that one. A. a bit less expensive B. as much expensive as C. not nearly as expensive as D. much far expensive than Question 10: My friend bought ___________ from a shop on Tran Phu street A. a brown nice leather belt B. a nice brown leather belt C. a leather brown nice belt D. a nice leather brown belt Question 11: The new manager found the situation so complicated that he couldn’t see the wood for the _________ A. leaf B. fruit C. wood D. trees Question 12: A: I think it is a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. B: _________ Family members can help each other a lot. A. It's not true B. That's wrong. C. I couldn't agree any more D. I don't agree. Question 13: Ann: How well you are playing, Peter! Peter: _________. A. Say it again. I like to hear your words B. Thank you too much C. I think so. I'm proud of myself D. Many thanks, that's a nice compliment Question 14: The teacher as well as his students____________ at the school meeting yet. A. arrived B. hasn’t arrived C. haven’t arrived D. not arriving 13 | P a g e Question 15: "Why wasn't your boyfriend at the party last night?" - "He ______ the lecture at Shaw Hall. I know he very much wanted to hear the speaker." A. may have attended B. was to attend C. should have attended D. can have attended Question 16: “We’d better __________ if we want to get there in time” A. take up B. turn down C. speed up D. put down Question 17: Nowadays, most students use _______ calculators in their studies and examinations A. electrical B. electricity C. electric D. electronic Question 18: It is essential that Alice __________ about his responsibilities in the meeting tomorrow A. be reminded B. must remind C. will be reminded D. will remind Question 19: The use of computers aids in teaching, __________ the role of teachers is still very important. A. although B. yet C. so that D. because Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: Within a week on display at the exhibition, the painting was hailed as a masterpiece. A. a down- to – earth work of art B. an excellent work of art C. an expensive work of art D. a large work of art Question 21: Deer like figures made from willow shoots are the oldest evidence of human habitation in the Grand Canyon A. proof B. clue C. dispute D. exhibit Question 22: He drives me to the edge because he never stops talking A. frightens me B. moves me C. irritates me D. steers me Question 23: I think we can safely say now that we have got our money back, we are home and dry. A. have got home dry B. have been successful C. have not got wet D. have got no water Question 24: Roget's Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order. A. unless B. instead of C. restricted D. as well as Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 25:A. resort B. position C. pleasure D. desert Question 26:A. helped B. wicked C. knocked D. coughed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 27: The longest mountain range, the Mid-Atlantic Range, is not hardly visible A B because most of it lies under the ocean. C D Question 28: Establishing in 1984 for students who wanted to study art and music subjects, A B LaGuardia was the first public school of its kind. C D Question 29: The abilities to work hard, follow directions, and thinking independently are A B C some of the criteria for success in the workplace. D Question 30: The old woman cannot remember the place which she kept her savings A B C D Question 31: I think she will be suitable for the work because she has been working like a A B C D 14 | P a g e teacher for a long time. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question below. We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade! Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning. In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope with the personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers. Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual tasks and assignments, they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal. Question 32: In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed-ability teaching” is ________ A. questioning B. approving C. objective D. critical Question 33: The phrase “held back” in paragraph 1 means ______ A. prevented from advancing B. forced to study in lower class C. made to remain in the same classes D. made to lag behind Question 34: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of the pupils’ _________ A. learning ability and communicative skills B. intellectual abilities C. total personality D. personal and social skills Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers B. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities C. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others D. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability Question 36: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to _________ A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities B. offer advice on the proper use of the school library C. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class. D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching Question 37: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work B. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different intellectual abilities C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class D. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full Question 38: According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability teaching? A. Formal class teaching is the important way to give pupils essential skills such as those to be used in the library B. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own. C. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class D. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development Question 39: Which of the following statements can best summarize the main idea of the passage? 15 | P a g e A. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils B. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class C. Children, in general, develop at different rates D. Bright children do benefit from mixed-ability teaching Question 40: According to the passage, “streaming pupils” ______ A. is the act of putting pupils into class according to their academic abilities B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience C. is quite discouraging D. will help the pupils learn best Question 41: According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because _______ A. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems B. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils C. formal class teaching is appropriate D. its aim at developing the children’s total personality Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Throughout history people have always communicated with one another, not only by speech but also by movements of the hands and body. It is, however, only (42) ______ the last few years that these aspects of communication have been studied at all widely. This type of communication is known as body language or nonverbal communication. People sometimes wonder (43) ______ you can learn how body language works. It is of course possible to read books on the subject but you also need to (44) ______ time observing people’s movements. A railway station is a particular good place for such observation, as here people can be seen openly expressing eagerness, sorrow, delight, impatience and many other human emotions by (45) _____ of movement. If you turn down the sound on your television set and try to understand (46) _____ is happening simply by watching the picture you will learn even more about communication (47) _____ words. By turning the sound back up every five (48) ______ or so, it is possible to check how accurate your (49) ______ is. Having studied the art of body language you will have a definite (50) ______ at a boring party. You will be able to sit on your own for the whole evening and thoroughly enjoy yourself by both watching (51) ______ interpreting the body language of all the other people there. Question 42: A. with B. during C. for D. on Question 43: A. that B. how C. what D. whether Question 44: A. kill B. spend C. give D. lose Question 45: A. means B. gestures C. health D. postures Question 46: A. who B. which C. what D. that Question 47: A. and B. including C. without D. with Question 48: A. years B. minutes C. hours D. months Question 49: A. expression B. understanding C. meaning D. movement Question 50: A. benefit B. favour C. disadvantage D. advantage Question 51: A. with B. and C. but D. or Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry, 16 | P a g e attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech. Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words. More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language. Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults. Question 52: Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph 2? A. Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language B. Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways C. Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies exposed to a single language. D. The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak. Question 53: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot understand them? A. They can remember them easily. B. They focus on the meaning of their parents' word. C. They enjoy the sound D. They understand the rhythm. Question 53: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot understand them? A. They can remember them easily. B. They focus on the meaning of their parents' word. C. They enjoy the sound D. They understand the rhythm. Question 55: The word "diverse" is closest in meaning to ______________. A. different B. surrounding C. stimulating D. divided Question 55: The word "diverse" is closest in meaning to ______________. A. different B. surrounding C. stimulating D. divided Question 57: Why does the author mention "a bell and a rattle"? A. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds B. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like C. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds D. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry Question 58: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language B. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language development C. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice D. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds Question 59: The word "emphasize" is closest in meaning to ______________. A. stress B. leave out C. explain D. repeat Question 60: What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire language? A. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions. B. Babies begin to understand words in songs. C. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds. D. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults. 17 | P a g e Question 61: The word "noted" is closest in meaning to______________. A. requested B. observed C. theorized D. disagreed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 62: A. humidity B. humidity C. endangered D. incredible Question 63: A. economics B. achievement C. dependent D. technology Question 64: A. understand B. expedition C. electronic D. insurance WRITING Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 65: He was very sorry that he didn't see Andrey on her trip to London. He greatly regretted ______________________________________ Question 66: The plane had hardly left the airport when the accident happened. No sooner ______________________________________________ Question 67: Although she said that she would come, I don’t think she ever will. Despite ________________________________________________ Question 68: Most people think Nigel is the best racing driver in the world. Nigel is considered _______________________________________ Question 69: Unless I receive her letter tomorrow, I’ll phone her,” said Nam Nam said that if ______________________________________ Part II: In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the importance of family in your life. The following prompt might be helpful to you. - supporting us - sharing feelings, secrets, problems … - helping us improve our personality ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… MOCK TEST 4 SECTION A: MULTIPLE –CHOICE QUESTIONS (8 points) Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 1: He was not a good father. He neglected his children. A. punished B. blamed C. took care of D. disregarded Question 2: She is a very kind-hearted, quiet woman. A. loud B. talkative C. many-mouthed D. noisy 18 | P a g e Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 3: Up to now_________,space exploring still remains_________very risky, complex, and expensive endeavor. A. X / a B. the / the C. a / X D. a / the Question 4: Allan: “Do you mind if I use your dictionary?” Nick: “ _________.” A. Without doubt B. No, feel free C. I’m afraid not D. Straight ahead Question 5: The higher one rises in the atmosphere_________, the temperature generally becomes. A. colder than B. the colder than C. the colder D. is colder Question 6: I the sales manager now if I _________such a terrible mistake. A. would have been/ had not made B. would be / didn’t make C. would be / had not made D. will be/ haven’t made Question 7: With the help of modern devices, those who suffer hearing or vision find life easier. A. disadvantage B. impairment C. inconvenience D. deficiency Question 8: We should study hard our parents can be proud of us. A. in order that B. in order to C. as that D. so as to Question 9:_________humans, toads have tongues fastened at the front of their mouths, which allow them to catch insects. A. Unlike B. Except for C. Dislike D. Not the same Question 10: It was not until she arrived at school_________realized she had forgotten her book. A. did she B. and she C. when she D. that she Question 11: Jane: What about going out for a walk after supper? Jimmy: _________. Walking after meals is good for health. A. I couldn’t agree more B. I believe not C. I don’t think so D. I’m afraid not Question 12: M. Jackson, _________combined powerful vitality with great dignity, was one of the best known gospel singers in the United States. A. which songs B. who sang C. whose singing D. it was her singing Question 13: _________1772, Maryland's state capitol is still in use and is one of the most attractive public buildings in the United States. A. Built on B. It was built on C. Built in D. Building in Question 14: Concert dates are not guaranteed and are subject to changes, modifications, or _________ A. cancellation B. cancels C. cancel D. cancelled Question 15: My education has given me a _________view of life. A. far B. wide C. large D. broad Question 16: I'm sorry, but I've got_________much work to do to come to the beach today. A. such B. enough C. too D. so Question 17: Written to be performed on _________, Wilder’s play OUR TOWN depicts the life in a New England community. A. scenery bare of stage B. stage scenery of bare C. stage bare of scenery D. bare of stage scenery Question 18: The workers decided to_________ until their demands were met. A. sit in B. lie behind C. sleep out D. stand up Question 19: Color and light, taken together,_________the aesthetic impact of the interior of a building. A. influence powerfully very B. very influence powerfully C. powerfully very influence D. very powerfully influence Question 20: Many plant and animal species are now in_________ of extinction. A. danger B. margin C. verge D. border Question 21: You _________to your teacher like that. It was very rude. A. wouldn’t have talked B. must have talked 19 | P a g e C. needn’t have talked D. shouldn’t have talked Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Although population and sedentary living were increasing at the time, there is little evidence that people lacked adequate food resources. A. dependable B. sufficient C. varied D. healthful Question 23: It has been suggested that some early cultivation was for medicinal and ceremonial plants rather than for food. A. in addition to B. such as C. instead of D. as a replacement Question 24: When preparing a diet, a person should be aware that vitamin D acts to increase the amount of calcium absorbed by the body. A. study of longevity B. schedule of exercise C. nutritional plan D. medicinal chart Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 25: The wave lengths(A) of ultraviolet light are shorter than that (B) of visible light but (C) longer than those (D) of X-rays. Question 26: Cameras (A) of one type or another(B) have been using(C) for more than a hundred(D) years. Question 27: The main rotor and tail rotor of(A) a helicopter make(B) the same(C) job as the wings(D) , propellers, and rubber of an airplane. Question 28: In addition to oil refining(A) and international banking, Panama is also(B) known for growing(C) bananas, pineapples(D) , and sugar. Question 29: Willa Cather is known(A) for My Antonia and another(B) novels of the (C) American frontier(D) . Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. The role of translation enabling literature to pass beyond its natural frontiers is receiving growing recognition. In view of the general increase in this (30)_____, it is not surprising that many people with literary interests and a knowledge of languages should think of adopting translating as a full-or part-time (31)_____. Some advice may usefully be given to such would-be translators. The first difficulty the beginner will (32)_____is the unwillingness of publishers to entrust a translator to anyone who has not already (33)____a reputation for sound work. The least publishers will (34)____ before commissioning a translator is a fairly lengthy specimen of the applicant’s work, even if unpublished. Perhaps the best way the would-be translator can begin is to select some books of the type (35)_____ he or she feels competent and eager to translate, translate a (36)_____section of the book and then submit the book and the translation to a suitable publisher. If he or she is extremely lucky, this may result in a commission to translate the book. More probably, however, publishers will (37) the book as such but if they are favorably (38) by the translation, they may very possibly commission some other books of a (39) nature which they already have in mind. Question 30: A. field B. category C. class D. group Question 31: A. occupation B. employment C. line D. work Question 32: A. reveal B. encounter C. involve D. introduce Question 33: A. formed B. set C. found D. established Question 34: A. direct B. instruct C. oblige D. demand Question 35: A. which B. where C. when D. whose Question 36: A. plentiful B. large C. grand D. substantial Question 37: A. reject B. exclude C. disapprove D. object Question 38: A. affected B. convinced C. taken D. impressed Question 39: A. joint B. same C. common D. similar Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions 20 | P a g e
- Xem thêm -

Tài liệu liên quan