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Tài liệu 2017 ksđt 12 lần 3

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đề thi khảo sát đội tuyển hs giỏi cấp tỉnh môn tiếng anh thpt
1 Part A. LISTENING: You will listen to each part TWICE. Section 1: Questions 1 – 5: Complete the details below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Example: Identification and security check: Platinum card Service Card number: 6992 (1) ___________ 11478921 Name: Carlos da Silva Postcode: (2)_______________ Address: (3) ___________ Vauxhall Close, London Date of birth: 13 July (4) _______________ Mother’s Maiden name: (5) ____________________ Section 2: Questions 6 – 10: Circle the correct letters A – C 6. The caller has paid A. less than the computer shows. B. more than the computer shows. C. £500 twice. 7. The caller is also worried about A. a bill that is too high. B. an overpayment to a restaurant. C. a payment that he does not recognize. 8. The interest A. went up in April. B. has not changed. C. has gone down ’ 9. The caller s number is A. 020 7997 9909. B. 020 7989 7182. C. 020 8979 7182. 10. The operator will ring the caller A. tomorrow. B. in two hours C. very soon Part B: PHONETICS (5 pts) Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. ( 2 points) 11. A. matter B. talk C. tank D. back 12. A. releases B. faces C. places D. advises Question II. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently fromthat of the other words.(3points) 13. A. product B. purpose C. postpone D. postcard 14. A. television B. democatic C. advantageous D.ingenuity 15. A. dialect B. diagram C. diagonal D. diamond Part C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts) Question I: Choose the correct word or phrase to complete each sentence ( 35points) 2 16. He was turned down for the job because he is ________. A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification 17. ______ he failed in the entrance exam caused his family much sadness. A. Which B. That C. The thing D. What 18.They resented ______ like a aliens . A. to treat B. to be treated C. being treated D. treating 19. I had my younger brother _______ the newspaper to me while I was abroad. A. to send B. sent C. send D. sending 20. The company is lauching a new advertising campaign to _______ new customers to its stores . A. attract B. appeal C. interest D. fascinate 21. I wish you _______ me a new one instead of having it _______ as you did A. had given; repaired B. gave; repair C. would give; to repair D. had given; to be repaired st 22. The date on this yoghurt is 1 June. It _______ sour. A. must be B. must have been C. will have been D. could be 23. He ______ his life to helping the poor. A. spent B. experienced C. dedicated D. used 24. Passengers are _______ not to leave cases and packages here. A. commanded B. informed C. notified D. advised 25 _______ of all of us who are here tonight, I would like to thank Mr Jones for his talk A. on account B. in person C. instead D. on behalf 26.I’m going to an interview. I hope I get the job, please _______ for me. A. keep your fingers B. hold your fingers crossed C. keep your fingers crossed D. hold your fingers 27. “If I hadn’t practised when I was younger,?” he says “ I ……… able to play now” A. wouldn’t have been B. wouldn’t be C. won’t be D. would be 28_______the rainfall was adequate this year, the apricot trees still did not produce a high yield. A. Since B. However C. Although D. Due to 29. It is a sign _______ fall when the leaves on the trees begin to change color. A. of B. for C. at D. to 30. Thang was asking Huong, his classmate, for her opinion about the novel he had lent her. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank. Thang: "What do you think about the novel?" Huong: "______" A. Yes, let's. B. The best I've ever read! C. I can't agree with you more. D. I wish I could. 31. That book is by a famous anthropologist. It’s about the people in Samoa _______ for two years. A. that she lived B. that she lived among them C. among whom she lived D. where she lived among them 32. The old man serves the ball so skilfully. He _______ a good tennis player when young. A. can be B. must be C. could be D. must have been 33. Most psychologists believe that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is_______ A. well established extremely by the age of five B. by the age of five it is extremely well established 3 C. by the age of five and well established extremely D. extremely well established by the age of five 34. No sooner ______to marry Jack ______to have serious doubts. A. had Carol agreed / than she began B. Carol has agreed / than she began C. had Carol agreed / than she begins D. had Carol agreed / than she had begun 35. The marathon runner ______for nearly one hour and a half when she ______to the pavement. A. has been running / collapses B. were running / collapsed C. had been running / collapsed D. ran / had been collapsing Question II: Use the correct forms of the verbs in brackets (5points) 36.It was a boring film. I would rather (not go) _______ there . 37. By the end of this month, I hope, I (write) _______ 200 pages of my new novel. 38.(Defeat) _______the former champion in three sets, Nam finally won the inter-school table tennis championship. 39. It is expected that tax increases (announce) _______ in tomorrow’s budget. 40. That car broke down, but for that, we (be) ______ on time. Question III: Fill each blank with the correct form of the words given. (10points) 41.The family managed to get out of the burning house, but they lost nearly all their______ (POSSESS). 42.Travelling in big cities is becoming more ______. (TROUBLE) 43. If you want to ______, you must not be shy. (SOCIETY) 44. Athens is particularly affected by ______ pollution. (ATMOSPHERE) 45.Her ______ from the group show her dislike of its members. (WITHDRAW) 46.Applicants must be under 25, hardworking and ______ (ENERGY) 47. He’s more ______ than I expected. (TOLERATE) 48. I had to look up the number in the telephone ______. (DIRECT) 49. A conversation isn’t fun unless it becomes ______. (HOT) 50.Phil was sentenced to seven years ______ for his part in the armed robbery. (PRISON) PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) Question I: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts) Mobile phones (51)_________ microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves might (52)_________ to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not (53)_________us to stay with certainty that mobile phones are categorically (54)_________. On the other hand, current research has not yet (55)_________ clear adverse effects associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones. Numerous studies are now going (56)_________ in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone and cancer. 4 (57)_________, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long – term investigation. (58)_________the scientific data are more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile for long (59)_________of time. Don’t think that hands – free phones safer either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the (60)_________ and they may be just as dangerous. 51. A. send B. give C. emit D. charge 52. A. cause B. lead C. produce D. bring 53. A. enable B. make C. able D. let 54. A. risky B. secure C. unhealthy D. safe 55. A. investigated B. demonstrated C. caused D. produced 56. A. by B. on C. through D. about 57. A. Though B. Additionally C. However D. While 58. A. Provide B. As C.When D. Until 59. A. amounts B. periods C. quantities D. intervals 60. A. fact B. opposite C. way D. truth Question II: Supply the most suitable word for each blank (10 points) Agriculture is the world’s most important industry. It provides us with _________ (61) all our food.. It also supplies materials for two other basic human needs- cothing and shelter. In__________ (62) , agriculture provides materials___________ (63) making many industrial products such as paints and medicines. About half the world’s workers are employed in agriculture – far more than in any __________ (64) industry. Agriculture is one of the world’s oldest industries. It began about 10,000 years ago in the Middle East. ___________ (65) that time, certain Middle Eastern tribes had discovered how to grow plants from seeds and how to raise ___________ (66) in captivity. Having mastered these skills, they could begin to practice agriculture. Before the development of agriculture, people got all their food by gathering wild plants, hunting and fishing. They had to search for food continually, ___________(67) left them little time for other activities. But as agriculture developed and farm output increased, _________(68) people were needed to produce food. The non-farmers could then develop the arts, crafts, trades and ___________(69) activities of civilized life. Agriculture,_________(70) not only greatly affected the food supply but also made civilization possible. Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (10 pts) Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live. Here are just a few of the factors to consider. Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel ? Do you want to work with children ? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work ?” There are no right or wrong answers ; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of importance to you. The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If not, there are diversity occupation – building inspector, supervisor, real estate agent – that involve a great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hospitality, law 5 education, and retail sales are found in all regions of the country.If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission. Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors. Another point to consider is that as you get mature, you will likely to develop new interests and skills that may point the way to new opportunities. The choice you make today need not be your final one. 71. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to _______. A. emphasize that each person’s answers will be different. B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process. C. indicate that the answers are not really important. D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time. 72. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _________. A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs 73. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ________. A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing 74. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who does not want to live in a big city ? A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising 75. Those are all the factors you should take into account when choosing a job except__________. A.Your likes and your dislikes B. The atmosphere at work C. Geographical location D. Your strengths and weaknesses 76. The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to A. occupation B. the traveling life C. a flight attendant D. commission 77. It can be inferred from the paragraph 3 that ________. A. jobs in insurance sales are generally not well-paid. B. insurance sales people can earn high salary later in their career. C. people should constantly work toward the next promotion. D. a starting salary should be an important consideration in choosing a career. 78. In paragraph 5, the author suggests that ________. A. you may want to change careers at some time in the future. B. as you get older, your career will probably less fulfilling. C. you will be at your job for a lifetime, so choose carefully. D. you will probably jobless at some time in the future. 79. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4 ? A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber. B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception. C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen. D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant. 80. According to the passage, which of the following is true ? 6 A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary. B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs. C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant D. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate. PART E: WRITING (20 pts) Question I: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts) 81. Nobody had invited Jean to the party, which annoyed her.  As she …………………………………………………………………………… 82. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.  Only when Alice ………………………………………………………………… 83. It’s your duty to finish your homework before you go to school.  That ……………………………………………………………………………… 84. No matter how hard he worked, he never seemed to be successful.  Hard-working …………………………………………………………………… 85. Scientists have tried very hard to find a cure for this disease.  Enormous ……………………………………………………………………… Question II: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. 86. . It has always been her ambition to write a successful novel. dreamt She.............................................................a successful novel. 87. I met her while I was staying in Paris last summer. stay I met her......................................................................in Paris last summer. 88. You got lost because you didn't do what I told you. instructions If...................................................................you wouldn't have got lost. 89. I'll only leave the waiter some money if he's quick. tip I won't..........................................................................he's quick. 90. Our neighbour says he definitely won't return the ball. keeping Our neighbour says he......................................................................the ball. Question III: Writing an essay about 200 words ( 10 points) Global environmental issues are the responsibility of rich nation not of poorer nationsDo you agree with this opinion? 7 TRƯỜNG THPT NÔNG CỐNG I TỔ NGOẠI NGỮ TỈNH LẦN 3 ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI DỰ THI CẤP NĂM HỌC 2016 -2017 Part A: LISTENING (10 pts) Section 1: 1. 3443 2. SI18PB 3. 43 4. 63 5. MOORE Section 2 :6. B 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. B Part B: PHONETICS 11. B 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. C Part C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45 pts) Question I: 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. A 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. C 29.A 30. B 31. C 32. D 33. D 34. A 35. D Question II: 36. not have gone 37. will have written 38.Having defeated 39. be announced/ should be announced 40. would have been Question III: 41. possessions. 42. troublesome 43. socialize 44. atmospheric 45. withdrawal 46. energetic 47. tolerant 48. directory 49. heated 50. imprisonment PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts) Question I: 51. C 52.B 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. B 57. C 58. D 59. C 60.C Question II: 61. who 62. what 66. animals 67. which Question III: 71.D 72. A 73.B 74. D 75. C PART D: WRITING (20 pts) Question I: 63. at 68. fewer 76. C 77. B 64. in 69. other 78. C 65.By 70. therefore 79. B 80. D 8 81.As she had not been invited to the party, Jean was annoyed. 82. Only when Alice and Charles had ( had) their second child, did they decide to move to a bigger house. (….. ‘ second child was born, did they decide to move to a bigger house.) (….. gave birth to the/ their second child,` did they decide to move to a bigger house.) 83. That your homework is finished before you go to school is your duty. 84. Hard-working as he worked, he never seemed to be successful. 85. Enormous effort has been made by scientists to find a cure for this disease. Question II: 86. She has always dreamt of writing a successful novel. 87 I met her during my stay in Paris last summer 88 If you had followed my instructions,you wouldn't have got lost. 89 I won't tip the waiter unless he's quick. 90 Our neighbour says he is definitely keeping the ball. Question 10Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme: 1.Format: 2 pts ( coherence , cohesion , style ) a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed clearly b. Body: should consist of at least 2 paragraphs to show your strong defence with reason and evidence about the importance of love or other aspects of a happy marriage. c. Conclusion (summary of the main ideas, students’ comment) 2. Content : 5pts 3. Language : 3pts ( grammatical accuracy , wide range of vocabularies and structures ) 9
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